# EN: I've been meaning to tell you



## chambers

I have found this sentence in a grammar book, and I really can't understand why do we have to use the _ing form.

The sentence is :

*I've been meaning* to tell you about it since the weekend.

Maybe I'm wong, but I would have said : " I've meant to tell you about it since the weekend"

Do you have an explanation ?


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## Angle O'Phial

Either form (have been meaning or have meant) works here. The -ing form is a bit more natural and emphasizes that the intention to tell you has been continuous since the weekend.


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## chambers

Angle O'Phial said:


> Either form (have been meaning or have meant) works here. The -ing form is a bit more natural and emphasizes that the intention to tell you has been continuous since the weekend.


 
And is there any real difference in meaning between "have meant" and "have been meaning" ?


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## Outsider

"Meaning" here means "intending". The present perfect continuous is correct, considering that the speaker has not yet managed to achieve his intent as he speaks.
To be perfectly honest (though I'm not a native speaker) the present perfect simple sounds a bit off to me, here. I'd love to hear from more natives.


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## Angle O'Phial

> And is there any real difference in meaning "have meant" and "have been meaning" ?



Not that I can see in this case. As I said, since the action is continuous, the -ing form seems more natural here.

*Outsider*, I disagree. Both are in common usage although the continuous is more natural. Have a look at google:
_"I've meant to"_ -> 37 khits
_"I've been meaning to"_ -> 1.5 Mhits


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## chambers

Thank you Angle O'Phial ;-))


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## geostan

Angle O'Phial said:


> Not that I can see in this case. As I said, since the action is continuous, the -ing form seems more natural here.
> 
> *Outsider*, I disagree. Both are in common usage although the continuous is more natural. Have a look at google:
> _"I've meant to"_ -> 37 khits
> _"I've been meaning to"_ -> 1.5 Mhits



The ...ing form suggests that you are finally getting around to completing the action. Despite the number of hits you found for "I've meant to," it's not a phrase that I would normally use, at least in the suggested sentence. It really sounds out of place.


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## v_jazz

I think "I've been meaning to" implies that I still intend to do it as we speak; whereas, "I've meant to" indicates that at some point I wanted to do that, but I had forogtten about it and I just remembered it this instant


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## djamal 2008

I have never heard of this form applied to the verb mean, as it's an action that is not lasting in time, you can't de meaning something over and over neither. You keep telling somebody something makes more sense.


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## Todessprache

djamal 2008 said:


> I have never heard of this form applied to the verb mean, as it's an action that is not lasting in time, you can't de meaning something over and over neither. You keep telling somebody something makes more sense.


 
But we do say it.


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## ondskan

V-Jazz is pretty much correct, though it is not a huge difference "I've been meaning" is considered more proper, and also carries a more personal undertone.

if you break down the abbreviation to "I have been meaning" / "I have meant" you'll find that "I've been meaning" makes more grammatical sense.


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## stamanu

In France, we learn that some verbs such as *mean, agree, understand, know, want* etc are incompatible with *the -ing form*, which is a fallacy, as shown in the previous posts and confirmed by the natives. We need to know when to use such a form and the context is all-important, but as a rule of thumb and generally speaking, the simple form used by the enunciator announces something new, unknown to the co-enunciator whereas *the -ing form has to do with something pre-existing to both enunciator and co-enunciator and clarifies/explains/develops something already mentioned in the context before*. However, some more context's calling to support my views!


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## Angle O'Phial

Stamanu,

Be careful. _Mean_ has two meanings, if you will. In the sense of _vouloir dire_, your teachers are correct, it cannot be used in progressive tenses (-ing). You cannot say that is what I am meaning. However, in the sense of _avoir l'intention_, _mean_ can indeed be used in progressive tenses. I am meaning to go to the store today is a perfectly good sentence and has been the focus of this thread. 

Your other examples are not all equivalent. While rare, _agree_ can indeed be used in -ing (Stop arguing, I am agreeing with you.). 

_Understand_ is generally not used in -ing, but it is possible (I'm just now understanding the full implications of XYZ.), but is usually (and ought to be) replaced by _coming/beginning/etc. to understand_.

I can't think of an example of _know_ in a progressive tense so I think your teachers are right there.

_Want_ is often used in the past progressive (_I've been wanting that for years now._) falls into the same category as the second meaning of _mean_.

I guess it all depends on the verb. Perhaps someone who really knows the answer can help.


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## wangshing

Outsider said:


> "Meaning" here means "intending". The present perfect continuous is correct, considering that the speaker has not yet managed to achieve his intent as he speaks.
> To be perfectly honest (though I'm not a native speaker) the present perfect simple sounds a bit off to me, here. I'd love to hear from more natives.


 
"I've (I have) meant" is definitely incorrect grammer, you're right.  You would say "I meant" without the auxiliary.  But there are cases when you say "I *might* have meant", or "I *could *have meant"  but I have no idea how to explain it, we just do.

You would say " I have been meanig to tell you" using the imparfait because they have not gotten around to it.  It has not been done yet.  Where as "I meant to tell you since this weekend" makes no sense.  Because, like I said, it is an action not yet completed.  It is the "since" that makes the difference in the sentences.


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## CocoBean

"I've been meaning to tell you since the weekend" indicates that you're letting someone know that you have something to tell them now, and you have had the intention since the weekend. "I have meant to tell you something since the weekend" has the exact same meaning as the first sentence. C'est comme l'imparfait en français. La différence ici est qu’il y a deux façons de dire la même chose en anglais, et il y a _une_ façon de le dire en français.


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