# voor hem lezen niks is



## Lemminkäinen

Hi,

I'm wondering whether the syntax in this sentence is correct. The sentence is from an exercise where you have to rewrite a statement to indirect speech (Hij zegt dat...).

Hij zegt dat voor hem lezen niks is.

I'm particularly unsure about whether "lezen niks is" is correct; it seems to go with the rules, but my (not-so-trustworthy Norwegian) instinct says that "lezen is niks" sounds better.


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## Suehil

No, 'dat voor hem lezen niks is' is a subordinate clause, which means that the verb has to come at the end.  So, 'Lezen is niks voor hem', but 'ik weet dat lezen voor hem niks is'


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## Lemminkäinen

Thanks.  I'll just have to work harder on suppressing my instinct, then.


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## Suehil

Don't worry, it'll come. At the moment I seem to spend most of my time suppressing my (acquired) instinct to put verbs at the end of clauses in French


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## Joannes

(Disregarding the position of *is*, which is at the end of course,) I would always say *hij zegt dat lezen niks voor hem is*, to mean 'he says reading is not his cup of tea' at least. *Hij zegt dat lezen voor hem niks is*, to me, would rather be an equivalent of *... dat lezen niks voor hem betekent*, that is to say, that it means nothing to him...

What do you think?


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## Svenshinhan

Actually I interpreted the "Hij zegt dat lezen voor hem niks is" as reading being extremely easy and trivial for him. Of course it depends on the context. Any literate adult would have no trouble reading in general, unless they're dyslexic.


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## Joannes

Svenshinhan said:


> Actually I interpreted the "Hij zegt dat lezen voor hem niks is" as reading being extremely easy and trivial for him.


Right, I didn't think of that, thanks. That works of course.


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