# Várom a párom



## dadge

I got into the habit of saying "Várom a párom" but then I realised that I was missing the objective ending. Or can it be optional?


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## Torontal

It is optional, you can omit the "-t" accusative marker after nouns which have the *1st* or *2nd* *person* singular possessive suffix.  So _várom a párom_ and _várom a páromat _are both correct.

A similar example: _Ismerem a bátyád_ (I know your brother) and _Ismerem a bátyádat ,_ both are correct.


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## Gerry905

This is a sentence I saw in the tutorial of HungarianProject. I don't quite understand why *a tollam *is not in the Accusative case here. It's the object of the sentence. Could anyone explain that?


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## jazyk

See here: Várom a párom


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## Gerry905

*Moderator's note: The two threads have been merged. Please make sure that there is not another thread already existing before starting a new thread. Thank you.
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I see, thanks. Maybe someone could merge the threads but I have some follow-up questions:
1. Is not adding the Accusative case for 1st and 2nd persons singular a common practice? Would it sound a bit weird if I did add it in colloquial everyday language?
2. Is the Accusative of a tollam, *a tollamat*?


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## AndrasBP

Gerry905 said:


> 1. Is not adding the Accusative case for 1st and 2nd persons singular a common practice?


Yes, it is.



Gerry905 said:


> Would it sound a bit weird if I did add it in colloquial everyday language?


No, it wouldn't sound weird at all. Both forms are commonly used.



Gerry905 said:


> 2. Is the Accusative of a tollam, *a tollamat*?


Yes, that's right.


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## Gerry905

AndrasBP, perfect. Thanks a lot!


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