# بعد أن أصبح وصيا على أملاك



## buczale

بعد أصبح وصيا على أملاك


I found that aSba7a means "to begin a new day, to wake up in the morning" or "to appear". amlaak should, in the whole context, mean "possessions, wealth". But not knowing all the words, I can't translate it. Could you give me the translations of each word? I can't find them in the dictionary, I assume it's my old problem of not being able to extract root letters properly?
Thanks.


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## yasmeena

أصبح here means 'became'

وصيا = guardian

أملاك = possessions


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## elroy

It should be ...بعد *أن* أصبح.


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## buczale

Thank you for the answers. I don't have the "an" in the text. Is it a mistake? Or does it change the meaning? The text comes from a newspaper from Algeria, by the way.

And one more thing... I found waSiiy in the dictionary. What's the difference between this word and the word in the text? I don't know why it ends with a long "a".


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## Ibn Monjur

Hello buczale

In regards to the question to whether there should be an أن, then as Elroy pointed out, this should be the case. However, it would sound more fluid (at least in my opinion) if the verb أصبح was in the present tense. ie يصبح .

The reason why there is وصيا is because أصبح is one of the sisters of كان and so renders the predicate in an accusative state. This is shown by the insertion of the tanween along with the alif or as you have called it, a "long a".

So the final sentence should read;

*بعدَ أنْ يُصْبِحَ وصياً على أملاكٍ*

or;

*بعدَ أنْ أصْبَحَ وصياً على أملاكٍ*

Ibn Monjur


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## buczale

Thank you, I simply thought it was a long "a" and didn't even think it could be the ending of the accusative case.


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## cherine

Ibn Monjur said:


> However, it would sound more fluid (at least in my opinion) if the verb أصبح was in the present tense. ie يصبح .
> So the final sentence should read;
> *بعدَ أنْ يُصْبِحَ وصياً على أملاكٍ*
> or;
> *بعدَ أنْ أصْبَحَ وصياً على أملاكٍ*


Hi,
I don't think it's a matter of fluidity, nor personal choice, to have يصبح instead of أصبح it's more a matter of meaning.
بعد أن يصبح وصيًا after he becomes a guardian (in the future).
بعد أن أصبح وصيًا after he became a guardian (in the past).

As for the missing أن , I think it's a typo from the journal. بعد can't be followed by verbs, so there must be a حرف or a noun after it.


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## elroy

Whether أصبح or يصبح is used does not have to do with fluidity.  Changing the tense changes the meaning of the sentence.

بعد أن أصبح وصيًا - after he _*became*_ a guardian
بعد أن يصبح وصيًا - after he _*becomes*_ a guardian


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## Ibn Monjur

Yes, the difference in the verb chosen would change the meaning from past to present.

However, in my opinion it does not sound fluid if one was to add بعد + أن + فعل ماض.

For example, بعد أن كتب does not really sound "right" to me but I could be wrong.

In my post I put up both the forms as a final verion due to my uncertainty in this.


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## elroy

بعد أن كتب sounds perfectly fine. 

.بعد أن كتب الرسالة وضعها في ظرف وأخدها إلى البريد - After he wrote the letter, he put it into an envelope and took it to the post office.


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## Ibn Monjur

I would tend to write بعد كتابة الرسالة in these kind of constructions.

Thank you for pointing out to me the validity of these constructions.


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## cherine

Ibn Monjur said:


> I would tend to write بعد كتابة الرسالة in these kind of constructions.


I think the meaning can be very slightly different between بعد كتابة and بعد أن كتب in that the first one doesn't show who wrote the letter.

Here are further proofs of the correctness of the structure بعد أن . Check:
- the verse 100 in سورة يوسف :
وجاء بكم من البدو من بعد أن نزغ الشيطان بيني وبين إخوتي
- Verse 57 in سورة الأنبياء :
وتالله لأكيدنّ أصنامكم بعد أن تولوا مدبرين
- verse 24 سورة الفتح :
وهو الذي كفّ أيديهم عنكم وأيديكم عنهم ببطن مكة من بعد أن أظفركم عليهم
- verse 26 سورة النجم :
وكم من مَلَكٍ في السموات لا تغني شفاعتهم شيئًا إلا من بعد أن يأذن الله لمن يشاء

There are other instance of بعد + حرف + فعل in the Qur'an, and I noticed that إذ and ما are more used than أنْ .


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## Ibn Monjur

cherine said:


> I think the meaning can be very slightly different between بعد كتابة and بعد أن كتب in that the first one doesn't show who wrote the letter.
> 
> Here are further proofs of the correctness of the structure بعد أن . Check:
> - the verse 100 in سورة يوسف :
> وجاء بكم من البدو من بعد أن نزغ الشيطان بيني وبين إخوتي
> - Verse 57 in سورة الأنبياء :
> وتالله لأكيدنّ أصنامكم بعد أن تولوا مدبرين
> - verse 24 سورة الفتح :
> وهو الذي كفّ أيديهم عنكم وأيديكم عنهم ببطن مكة من بعد أن أظفركم عليهم
> - verse 26 سورة النجم :
> وكم من مَلَكٍ في السموات لا تغني شفاعتهم شيئًا إلا من بعد أن يأذن الله لمن يشاء


 
Cherine.

I noticed 2 of the 4 qoutes (quote 2 and 4) of the Qur'an are actually in the مضارع form and not the ماض one.

As per my post above, I was talking about بعد + أن + فعل ماض.

Also, when used with the فعل ماض is it normally with من + بعد + أن? I think this might be an interesting question to ask.


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## cherine

Ibn Monjur said:


> Cherine.
> I noticed 2 of the 4 qoutes (quote 2 and 4) of the Qur'an are actually in the مضارع form and not the ماض one.


So...? Does it reduce the value of the other two quotes?


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## Ibn Monjur

No of course not. Indeed every letter of the Qur'an has a value. 

*لَوْ أَنزَلْنَا هَذَا الْقُرْآنَ عَلَى جَبَلٍ لَّرَأَيْتَهُ خَاشِعًا مُّتَصَدِّعًا مِّنْ خَشْيَةِ اللَّهِ وَتِلْكَ الأَمْثَالُ نَضْرِبُهَا لِلنَّاسِ لَعَلَّهُمْ يَتَفَكَّرُونَ *

Translation by Yousuf Ali;

*Had We sent down this Qur'an on a mountain, verily, thou wouldst have seen it humble itself and cleave asunder for fear of Allah. Such are the similitudes which We propound to men, that they may reflect.*

I don't know if you are a muslimah but the value of every single letter let alone quotes of the Qur'an has such value that mere mortals such as ourselves can not even start to perceive nor comprehend.

In regards to your question as to why I wrote that then it is because we are discussing the use of بعد + أن + فعل ماض. I had already agreed with the use of فعل مضارع as per my first post of this thread.


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## cherine

Ibn Monjur said:


> I don't know if you are a muslimah but the value of every single letter let alone quotes of the Qur'an has such value that mere mortals such as ourselves can not even start to perceive nor comprehend.


Although the introduction of your post is a bit off-topic (and not really needed), I'll just say that yes, I'm muslim, al7amdu lillah. But this is not the topic, nor does this change anything.


> In regards to your question as to why I wrote that then it is because we are discussing the use of بعد + أن + فعل ماض. I had already agreed with the use of فعل مضارع as per my first post of this thread.


 Yes, but you didn't agree with the use of the past tense. And this is why I gave you the Quranic examples.
And I still don't understand your objections to the use of بعد+أن+فعل ماض


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## Ibn Monjur

cherine said:


> Although the introduction of your post is a bit off-topic


 
I dont think it was off topic at all as you posed a question to me regarding the value of *"your"* quotes.



cherine said:


> So...? Does it reduce the value of the other two quotes?


 
Thus, I was answering *your* question with the following;



> No of course not. Indeed every letter of the Qur'an has a value.


 
As for my agreement/diagreement then it should be noted (I would quote it here but I think there are too many quotes already) that I said "in my opinion" and also as a final quote I said both are correct.



cherine said:


> Yes, but you didn't agree with the use of the past tense. And this is why I gave you the Quranic examples.
> And I still don't understand your objections to the use of بعد+أن+فعل ماض


 
If you read my post, I had already agreed with it 33 minutes prior to your post. I will copy the quote here for ease. The reason why I stated what I did for 2 of the quotes is that it does not support the debate for the use of the past tense but rather the present one.



> Thank you for pointing out to me the validity of these constructions.


 
Hence, my agreement of its validity.

I hope it is now clear.


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## Mahaodeh

buczale said:


> بعد أصبح وصيا على أملاك
> 
> 
> I found that aSba7a means "to begin a new day, to wake up in the morning" or "to appear".


 
I just wanted to point out that أصبح (and also أمسى وأضحى) can have the meaning of "became" in certain cases whereas in others it can have the original meaning of "the morning came on him". In most cases it (they) has the former meaning, which is the case of your example.


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