# من الزائدة



## aurelien.demarest

Hi guys,

I know that زَادَ‎  means "to increase" but could anyone tell me what is the best English translation of من الزائدة?
source: من الزائدة

Thanks in advance
Aurélien


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## lukebeadgcf

I suppose you could translate من الزائدة as "the superfluous or expletive من," though I don't think that من is superfluous in the example given on the website. Rather, it conveys the sense of "any/at all" as in "Are there any questions at all?" Also, I don't agree that
هل من سؤال؟ = هل من سؤال عندك؟. The sentence with عندك is more specific than the sentence without عندك.

I can't think of an example where من is really زائدة.


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## Sadda7

lukebeadgcf said:


> I can't think of an example where من is really زائدة.



ما كلّمتُ من أحد.
ما كلّمتُ أحدًا.


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## lukebeadgcf

Sadda7 said:


> ما كلّمتُ من أحد.
> ما كلّمتُ أحدًا.



Agreed if there's no nuance in meaning!


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## lukebeadgcf

On second thought, don't you think this usage can be partitive للتبعيض rather than purely expletive زائدة?

I don't think the partitive character is particularly obvious in the example ما كلمت من أحد, but if you say هل لديك من ماء؟, wouldn't that be closer to, "Do you have _some _water/avez-vous _de_ l'eau?" which would contrast with the more generic هل لديك ماء؟, meaning "Do you have water/avez-vous l'eau?" I'm not sure if the French is right in this last example, but I'm trying to compare the partitive use of من with the partitive _de _in French.


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## Matat

If speaking to how the i3raab is interepreted, سؤال is the مبتدأ and the خبر is considered omitted in هل من سؤال؟.

In technical jargon, من للتبعيض and من الزائدة are considered two separate types of من (in other words, you may call the من either زائدة or للتبعيض in its i3raab, but not both simultaneously). However, I would agree that من الزائدة does have a partitive meaning as well.


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## aurelien.demarest

Thanks guys I get the meaning now and by the way we don't say "avez-vous l'eau?" but just "avez-vous *de* l'eau?" like من ماء


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## lukebeadgcf

Even if you were talking about a specific body of water? "I asked him to prepare the water with a specific mix of other chemicals for the procedure. When he arrived, I asked: Avez-vous l'eau ?"


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## Sarah Bundogji

In the verse وَلَقَدْ خَلَقْنَا السَّمَاوَاتِ وَالْأَرْضَ وَمَا بَيْنَهُمَا فِي سِتَّةِ أَيَّامٍ وَمَا مَسَّنَا مِن لُّغُوبٍ what is the point of adding من, which is obviously zaida?


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## Ali Smith

I think it adds the meaning “any” or “at all”, but I’m not sure.


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## Mahaodeh

من الزائدة is added to emphasize the generic meaning of the indefinite noun after it. In this particular context you could say that it adds the meaning of “any kind of”; _we were not affected by any kind of weariness/tiredness_. The emphasis of the generic nature means that the word لغوب would include everything from a slight annoyance to extreme exhaustion.


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## Ali Smith

Mahaodeh said:


> من الزائدة is added to emphasize the generic meaning of the indefinite noun after it. In this particular context you could say that it adds the meaning of “any kind of”; _we were not affected by any kind of weariness/tiredness_. The emphasis of the generic nature means that the word لغوب would include everything from a slight annoyance to extreme exhaustion.


And what would ما مسنا لغوبٌ have meant?


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## Mahaodeh

Exhaustion.


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## Qureshpor

Ali Smith said:


> And what would ما مسنا لغوبٌ have meant?


Should this be maa massanaa luGuub-an?


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## Ali Smith

If it were, what would be the فاعل of مَسَّ?


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## Qureshpor

Ali Smith said:


> If it were, what would be the فاعل of مَسَّ?


Thank you. My mistake.


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## zj73

Ali Smith said:


> And what would ما مسنا لغوبٌ have meant?


It would have meant "Weariness did not touch us."
The one with من means "No weariness at all touched us."

Similarly, ما جاء رجلٌ means "No man came." but ما جاء من رجلٍ means "Not a single man came."


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## Ali Smith

Here's another example of من الزائدة:

وَلَقَدْ صَرَّفْنَا لِلنَّاسِ فِي هَذَا الْقُرْآنِ مِنْ كُلِّ مَثَلٍ فَأَبَى أَكْثَرُ النَّاسِ إِلَّا كُفُورًا


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## zj73

Ali Smith said:


> Here's another example of من الزائدة:
> 
> وَلَقَدْ صَرَّفْنَا لِلنَّاسِ فِي هَذَا الْقُرْآنِ مِنْ كُلِّ مَثَلٍ فَأَبَى أَكْثَرُ النَّاسِ إِلَّا كُفُورًا


No, it seems to mean the origin/provenance of the Quran.


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## Mahaodeh

zj73 said:


> No, it seems to mean the origin/provenance of the Quran.


How did you come to that conclusion?


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## Ali Smith

Perhaps I should have given the following example:

وَبَشِّرِ الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا وَعَمِلُوا الصَّالِحَاتِ أَنَّ لَهُمْ جَنَّاتٍ تَجْرِي مِن تَحْتِهَا الْأَنْهَارُ ۖ كُلَّمَا رُزِقُوا مِنْهَا مِن ثَمَرَةٍ رِّزْقًا ۙ قَالُوا هَٰذَا الَّذِي رُزِقْنَا مِن قَبْلُ ۖ وَأُتُوا بِهِ مُتَشَابِهًا ۖ وَلَهُمْ فِيهَا أَزْوَاجٌ مُّطَهَّرَةٌ ۖ وَهُمْ فِيهَا خَالِدُونَ (البقرة:٢٥)

The من right before ثمرة does not change ثمرة's grammatically status; it remains a مفعول به of the passive verb رُزِقُوْا. However, the meaning changes slightly and becomes "Whenever they are provided with any kind of fruit from it."

Without this مِنْ it would have meant "Whenever they are provided with a fruit from it."


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## Mahaodeh

Ali Smith said:


> Perhaps I should have given the following example:


Your first example was correct, the من is in fact زائدة.


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