# Vespere autem facto cum occidisset sol



## UkrainianPolyglot

Please help me parse this sentence. I know the rough translation:

"In the evening moreover/however when the sun was set".

What I have trouble with is facto in this sentence. I presume it's the Perfect Passive Participle in Ablative form. Does it go with "vespere" (which I assume is adverb) or with "cum occidisset sol"? And what would be the most literal translation?


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## exgerman

"Vespere facto" is an ablative absolute "when the evening was accomplished". Vespere is a noun in the ablative case.

"Cum occidisset sol" is another temporal clause "when the sun had set".

Autem is a discourse particle which indicates that what follows is preliminary information that we want to get said before we get to the main clause.

Unfortunately you haven't given us the main clause.

PS I see that this is the language of the Vulgate (Mark 1.32), which explains the slightly odd ( from a classical viewpoint) "vespere facto".


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## CapnPrep

The Vulgate Gospels contain several instances of _vespere autem facto_, and one of _facto vespere_ (Matt 16:2). L&S says that _vesper fit _is used in Late Latin to mean _advesperascit_, but the Vulgate doesn't actually use the nominative form _vesper_, and I haven't found this noun used with any other forms of _fieri_ besides the ablative absolute construction with _facto_.


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## fdb

In fact, all three references for this construction cited by L/S are from the Vulgate (Mt 14,15; 16,2; 26,20). Vespere autem facto is evidently a literal rendering of ὀψίας δὲ γενομένης.


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## exgerman

fdb said:


> In fact, all three references for this construction cited by L/S are from the Vulgate (Mt 14,15; 16,2; 26,20). Vespere autem facto is evidently a literal rendering of ὀψίας δὲ γενομένης.



LS is obviously selective in its listings. The only place where _vespere autem facto_ is immediately succeeded by _cum occidissset sol _is Mark 1.32.


> vespere autem facto cum occidisset sol adferebant ad eum omnes male habentes et daemonia habentes


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## fdb

Of course. LS is a lexicon, not a concordance. My remark was about  syntax. Mk 1:32 also has ὀψίας δὲ γενομένης "it having become evening".


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