# إذاً - إذن



## jasmine4

I read that when a فعل مضارع is preceded by إذن (also written إذاً), then it becomes منصوب. However, the Qur’an says:
أم لهم نصيب من الملك فإذا لا يؤتون الناس نقيرا أم يحسدون الناس على ما آتاهم الله من فضله
How come it isn’t إذا لا يؤتوا?


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## RitaRoland

You're right. It should be "لا يؤتوا" instead of "لا يؤتون"...

Any verb in its present form should be منصوب when preceded by both إذا and إذاَ... It's not a matter of vowels; it's a matter of prepositions. So, grammatically, it should be "لا يؤتوا".


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## Matat

jasmine4 said:


> I read that when a فعل مضارع is preceded by إذن (also written إذاً),



No. It only becomes منصوب when it's a response to another individual's statement. For example:
خالد: أهلا يا رامي، أريد أن ألتقي بك
رامي: حسنا، إذن نلتقيَ قريبا في المقهى
This is the only way in which the verb after إذن will become منصوب. If إذن is not a response to an someone else's statement, it will not turn the verb subjunctive.



RitaRoland said:


> Any verb in its present form should be منصوب when preceded by both إذا and إذاَ..


There are few instances in which it becomes subjunctive after إذن/إذاً, and there is never an instance where إذا (no tanween) makes a verb subjunctive.


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## Ectab

it is because it is preceeded by fa فـ therefor it could either make the verb manSuub or not, both are right.


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## Mazhara

إِذًا

Whenever this particle follows Waw and Fa there are two perspectives regarding the Irab of verb. When these particles indicate the requital of a condition then it is permissible that the verb governed by it may be nominative or accusative, example 17:76 where perspective of the nominal state is due to the particle Izin following the conjunctive particle waw which is in apposition with the verb which is nominative.


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## Matat

Ectab said:


> it is because it is preceeded by fa فـ therefor it could either make the verb manSuub or not, both are right.





Mazhara said:


> إِذًا
> 
> Whenever this particle follows Waw and Fa there are two perspectives regarding the Irab of verb. When these particles indicate the requital of a condition then it is permissible that the verb governed by it may be nominative or accusative, example 17:76 where perspective of the nominal state is due to the particle Izin following the conjunctive particle waw which is in apposition with the verb which is nominative.



Neither the waaw nor faa2 has any bearing on the effect of إذن/إذاً on a verb. The only time إذن makes a verb subjunctive is as I mentioned above.


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## Ectab

why do you think so?


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## Matat

Based on the rules of إذاً/إذن, the verb wouldn't have been subjunctive, so there's nothing the faa2 did in the first place. On the other end, had the verb been subjunctive, there is nothing the faa2 would have done to stop it from being subjunctive.

What makes you say the faa2 did anything?


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## Ectab

I read on an article about this اذن, an Arabic article
here:
يشترط في ( إذَنْ) لنصب الفعل المضارع ثلاثة شروط . - منتديات التصفية و التربية السلفية
if you can read Arabic and understand.


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## Matat

This is a forum post, so we need to be cautious about the information on it. I agree with the beginning part of the first post, but I don't see any basis for the following information on that same post:



> *- إذا دّل الفعل على الحال رُفِعَ بعدها ، مثال ذلك : إني أحبك ، فتقول : إذن أُقَدِرُ هذا لك .
> - و كذلك إذا لم تتصدر جملة الجواب ، مثال : ...محمد إذن يُكْرِمُكَ .
> - و إذا سبقها حرف عطف فهنا يجوز الرفع و يجوز النصب ، مثال : ...و إذن يُكْرِمُكَ ، ...و إذن يُكْرِمَكَ ، و كذلك قوله تعالى : وَإِذًۭا لَّا يَلْبَثُونَ خِلَـٰفَكَ إِلَّا قَلِيلًۭا ﴿٧٦﴾ الإسراء ، و هنا في الآية سبقت( إذن) بحرف عطف و بالتالي رُفِع الفعل بعدها .
> من شرح فضيلة الشيخ محمد سعيد رسلان للتحفة السنية .
> *



Based on what the beginning part of the post says itself, it doesn't make sense for يلبثون to possibly be subjunctive in the verse that is cited. But what's most important is to see what the source of the information is. On the bottom of the post, it says that this information is coming from an explanation by Sheikh Mohammed Saeed Raslan on the book التحفة السنية, which is a book written by Mohammed Mohyii-deen AbdelHamid. I opened this book being discussed and found AbdelHamid talking about إذن on page 66. Everything written on that page is correct. I didn't see anything written by AbdelHamid about the effects of a conjunction like waaw or faa2 on the verb before or after إذن or anything about what I boxed in quotes above. The forum seems to be giving a transcript of a part of a series of lectures given by Mohammed Saeed Raslan about the book. I found the lecture series here, though I didn't take the time to go through them to find where he speaks about إذن. However, assuming Raslan did actually say what is boxed in quotes above, he is not a linguist or grammarian (not that I know of at least) and I think he was simply mistaken. I've never seen a credible source mention anything about how a conjunction would create the effect that he is describing.


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## Ali Smith

In the sentence أختي في حاجة إلي؛ إذن أذهب إلى قريتي (My sister needs me. So, I am going to my village.) should the verb be منصوب? My textbook has it as مرفوع (see attachment).


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## AM12345

Yes, it should be in the subjunctive tense.


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## Ali Smith

But why isn't the verb يذهبُ mansoob in the following?

عَنْ وَائِلِ بْنِ حُجْرٍ قَالَ كُنْتُ عِنْدَ رَسُولِ اللَّهِ صلى الله عليه وسلم فَأَتَاهُ رَجُلاَنِ يَخْتَصِمَانِ فِى أَرْضٍ فَقَالَ أَحَدُهُمَا إِنَّ هَذَا انْتَزَى عَلَى أَرْضِى يَا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ فِى الْجَاهِلِيَّةِ وَهُوَ امْرُؤُ الْقَيْسِ بْنُ عَابِسٍ الْكِنْدِىُّ وَخَصْمُهُ رَبِيعَةُ بْنُ عِبْدَانَ قَالَ بَيِّنَتُكَ قَالَ لَيْسَ لِى بَيِّنَةٌ قَالَ يَمِينُهُ قَالَ إِذًا يَذْهَبُ بِهَا قَالَ لَيْسَ لَكَ إِلاَّ ذَاكَ قَالَ فَلَمَّا قَامَ لِيَحْلِفَ قَالَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صلى الله عليه وسلم مَنِ اقْتَطَعَ أَرْضًا ظَالِمًا لَقِىَ اللَّهَ وَهُوَ عَلَيْهِ غَضْبَانُ قَالَ إِسْحَاقُ فِى رِوَايَتِهِ رَبِيعَةُ بْنُ عَيْدَانَ

Source: Zuhair bin Harb and Ishaq bin Ibrahim, from Hesham bin Abdul Malik, from Abu Awanah, from Abdul Malik bin Umair, from Alqamah bin Wa'il, from Wa'il bin Hujr in Sahih Muslim


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## Zimbobwe

Maybe it was mansoob but the narrator made a mistake because he didn't know Arabic that well?


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## cherine

Please, people, read and research before posting whatever comes to your mind. And read the thread carefully before adding new posts. I think Matat already answered your question, Ali:


Matat said:


> This is the only way in which the verb after إذن will become منصوب. If إذن is not a response to an someone else's statement, it will not turn the verb subjunctive.


So you don't need to worry about the accurateness of your book or the hadith you quoted.


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## zaw

Is إذن (or إذًا) related to Aramaic אֱדַיִן? They mean the same thing.


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