# Pronunciation - V (vive, vestido)



## johnL

Hello, everyone.
My lessons have many audio and video recordings in them, and when someone is pronouncing a word like "vive" or "vestido" it always sounds like they are saying the "v" like the English "b."  But on the text-to-speech demo web site, when I put those words in, one voice sounds like it is saying "b" and one voice sounds like it is saying "v." 
Is there a "right way" to say the Spanish "v" or does it just vary with the speaker?

Thanks very much.


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## LaReinita

There is no "v" sound in spanish . . it is always pronounced as "b" . . I know that sometimes it sounds like "v" but it isn't . . it's always "b."  Sometimes maybe just a bit softer than our "b" in English.


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## 0scar

_*v.*
1. f. Vigésima quinta letra del abecedario español, y vigésima segunda del orden latino internacional, que *representa un fonema consonántico labial y sonoro, el mismo que la b en todos los países de lengua española. *Su nombre es uve, ve, ve baja o ve corta._


No hay diferencia, pero creo que no siempre fue asi.


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## Pannadol

The B isn't usually a hard B, like LaReinita said it's more like a cross between a B and a V. If you put your mouth like you're about to say V, your bottom lip is under your front teeth. If you put your mouth like you're about to say B, your bottom lip meets with your top lip. Try saying it with your bottom lip BETWEEN your front teeth and top lip. It feels a bit weird at first but when you get the hang of it, it naturally slips there. Technically it's still touching your top lip, so don't freak out if you can't position it perfectly, but it's not smack bang on the lip like when you say "bebida", for example.


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## kios_01

Actually, the sound of soft "v" or "b" (as when it comes in between vowels) in Spanish doesn't exist in English.

In phonetics, it's called the voiced bilabial fricative. But obviously, knowing its name won't help you.

It's like positioning your lips to produce the "b" sound, only you open them a bit, thereby releasing air. Your goal is to produce a sound in between "b" and "w."

Just keep practicing pronouncing words that has both the hard and the soft sounds like "vivo" or "bebida," etc. Eventually, you'll get the hang of it.

That's the pronounciation I've encountered in my studies. Of course, I've been studying Spanish from Spain. The situation in Latin America is somewhat different. I've heard some of my Latino professors pronounce the Spanish "b" or "v" the same way as the English "v." 

Hope that helps.


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## johnL

Okay, I'm glad to know I'm not imagining things!
Thanks for the info, everybody.


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## rosenrot

I have always known that "v" sound in spanish is almost the same as in english. In fact, I'm a native spanish speaker xD but what I was tought is that "v" sound in spanish is labio-dental. The difference is that in english it is like a softer "f" but in spanish you don't have to let the air scape through your upper teeth and lower lip, so that the sound is almost similar to "b". "b" sound is bilabial instead.


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## María Madrid

Probablemente por te suene la uve por la influencia del italiano, que en tu país es enorme y que sí diferencia entre ambos sonidos. Pero la verdad es que en español hace siglos y siglos que no hay uve. Salvo para algunas cantantes cursis que la marcan mucho (no diré nombres, sólo que ha hecho muchas versiones de canciones italianas).

En realidad hay dos sonidos en español, ambos aplicables a la v y b por igual. Uno más intenso, a principio de frase o tras un n/m y otro más suave, en medio de la palabra o de la frase.

Ven a bajarme esto de la baca. 
Siempre voy en tranvía.

Ven sonará más fuerte que baca sólo por su posición. La uve de tranvía sonará más intensa que la de voy por la ene (que suena más bien m). Pero por supuesto la diferencia entre ambos sonidos no es abismal.

Luego están las variaciones locales, por ejemplo en algunas zonas de Jaén la uve es más cercana a la uve inglesa, pero igualmente se usa ese sonido para uve y b. También he notado que los chilenos pronuncian una uve mucho más suave incluso, no sé si es algo aplicable a todo el país o sólo a algunas zonas. Saludos,


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## Forero

Spanish _v_ is like English _b_ as far as lip position, but the lips are closed very lightly, especially between vowels.

Se usa mucho el término "labiodental" cuando fonéticamente no lo es para poder decir cómo se escribe.


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## roxcyn

http://www.uiowa.edu/~acadtech/phonetics/about.html

It will show you how to make the sounds.  Look for *, that is how you say it between vowels.

In other positions, Beso, hablar, vaca for example, they sound like English B*


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## jmx

johnL said:


> Is there a "right way" to say the Spanish "v" or does it just vary with the speaker?


I'd say : it doesn't just vary with the speaker, but also with the register. Some Spanish speakers, especially in a few countries like Chile, were taught at school to pronounce the 'v' letter with a labio-dental sound, as in English, French or Italian. So what they do is "forcing" this sound in formal speech, while in an informal conversation they pronounce it the same as a 'b' (which in turn means 2 different sounds, one plosive and one fricative, depending on position). 

That is, they were taught that the labio-dental sound is the "correct" one, and that not speaking with this sound is "vulgar".


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## sniffrat

I know a woman from Castilla-La Mancha, Spain. She pronounces the word "verb" as "verv". I once met a man from Madrid who would sometimes say "bery good!". Now that I am learning Spanish I am more confused than ever!

It seems to me that the "labiodental V" sound does indeed exist. Maybe it is just more prominent in the middle of Spain. Or am I just imagining all this?


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## María Madrid

I'd say southeast (Extremadura, northern areas in Andalusia)... It's not common to hear a clear V anyway. Not standard Spanish. Most Spaniards have difficulty pronouncing v in English, especially if it comes a the end of a word. It becomes an f, instead of I have you'll hear I haFFFF. Saludos,


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## pontchartrain

To put a little different spin on what Panadol has written, I would suggest forming your lips as though you were going to pronounce a B. When you pronounce it, make sure only the middle portions your lips touch (and only just barely), leaving the sides of your mouth open.


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## ernest_

johnL said:


> Is there a "right way" to say the Spanish "v" or does it just vary with the speaker?



There is no distinction between 'b' and 'v' in Spanish. However, there are professional singers and maybe some actors who do make a distinction when they sing, I don't know why. But the vast majority of people don't do it, and you will sound foreign if you do


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## Milton Sand

sniffrat said:


> I know a woman from Castilla-La Mancha, Spain. She pronounces the word "verb" as "verv". I once met a man from Madrid who would sometimes say "bery good!". Now that I am learning Spanish I am more confused than ever!
> 
> It seems to me that the "labiodental V" sound does indeed exist. Maybe it is just more prominent in the middle of Spain. Or am I just imagining all this?


 
In general, V an B sound the smae in Spanish:

*Vívían bebiendo vino envenenado en botella.*
*/Bibían bebiendo bino embenenado em botelya/*
*They spent the time drinking bottled poisoned wine.*

Note that brown letters sound stronger while blue ones sound weaker.

I hope this has given you a wider idea.


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## 0scar

acabo de descubrir que si hago diferenciación entre v y b en palabras como    _viví_  y _bobo_, son más fácil de pronunciar que _bibí _y _vovo_, en términos generales es más fácil _pronunciar vi _que _bi_ y _bo,ba_ que _vo,va_


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## Jellby

Labio-dental "v" does not exist in Spanish. Where it appears, it's usually a contamination of another language or a form of "hypercorrection".

What there is is two kinds of "b", a hard, plosive * and a soft, fricative [β]. The former is used at the beginning of a phrase or after a consonant, the second is used (inadvertedly by native speakers) between vowels. So, we say:

vivo -> bi'βo
bobo -> bo'βo
no vivo -> no βi'βo

(Similar things happen with "g" and "d").*


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## Magmod

Supongamos que un extranjero prenuncie la *ve baja* como una v en inglés en la frase siguiente:

*V**i**v**ían **b**e**b**iendo **v**ino en**v**enenado en **b**otella.*
 ¿Se podría un nativo hispano hablante aprender todo lo que dice el extranjero?

 ¿Sería sonar mal por los nativos en términos generales y sería mejor para los extranjeros prenuncian la ve baja y la b el mismo que los hispanohablantes?
Es decir así:

*Bibían bebiendo bino embenenado em botella*
** Por favor dad cuenta que no puedo aprender una nueva letra y me gusta esta respuesta #3:

la uve baja representa un fonema consonántico labial y sonoro, el mismo que la b en todos los países de lengua española


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## Outsider

rosenrot said:


> I have always known that "v" sound in spanish is almost the same as in english. In fact, I'm a native spanish speaker xD but what I was tought is that "v" sound in spanish is labio-dental. The difference is that in english it is like a softer "f" but in spanish you don't have to let the air scape through your upper teeth and lower lip, so that the sound is almost similar to "b". "b" sound is bilabial instead.


From what I understand, the letter "v" has no distinct sound value in Spanish. It is pronounced just like a "b". Always. "Vive" is pronounced exactly like "bibe" would be.

This is like "ge" and "je", which are always pronounced the same, even though they are different spellings.


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## Jellby

Magmod said:


> Supongamos que un extranjero prenuncie la *ve baja* como una v en inglés en la frase siguiente:
> [*]*V**i**v**ían **b**e**b**iendo **v**ino en**v**enenado en **b**otella.*[/LIST]
> ¿Se podría un nativo hispano hablante aprender todo lo que dice el extranjero?
> ¿Sería sonar mal por los nativos en términos generales y sería mejor para los extranjeros prenuncian la ve baja y la b el mismo que los hispanohablantes?



Sonaría raro, pues el fonema labiodental fricativo sonoro [v] es inexistente en español, pero se entendería perfectamente, puesto que lo asociaríamos inmediatamente con una b/v "mal dicha". También sonaría raro o forzado el uso de * para la "b" intervocálica, ya que el sonido natural es la [β] que mencioné antes (bilabial fricativo sonoro).

Creo que sería preferible pronunciar todas como  antes que introducir el sonido extraño [v]. La pronunciación más o menos correcta sería

i[β]ía[m] e[β]iendo [β]ino e[m]enenado e[m] otella.

Fíjate que "nv" se tiende a pronunciar [mb], aunque estén en palabras diferentes.*


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## Milton Sand

O-oh.


I think I wasn't clear enough:_(*In general*, V an B *sound the same* in Spanish_​I meant that both are *BILABIAL*



Later, in my example:*/Bibíam bebiendo bino embenenado em botelya/*​...I hoped someone to discover (as Jellby clarifyed) that "n", before "b" or "v", is pronunced as /m/.

Bye!


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## Magmod

Milton Sand said:


> Later, in my example:
> */Bibíam bebiendo bino embenenado em botelya/*​...I hoped someone to discover (as Jellby clarifyed) that "n", before "b" or "v", is pronunced as /m/.


  Yes I did discover from your example that *n* is pronounced as *m* before v or b in Spanish.

 So how do you pronounce words with -nm?:

inmoral = immoral
inmóvil = immovable
inmobiliario etc.


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## Istriano

A friend of mine (from Madrid) said: ''In Spanish it's very easy to pronounce everything because it's pronounced as it's written''

I replied: It's not true. You write it ''un vaso'' but you pronounce it umbaso.

He laughed and said: No, we don't pronounce it umbaso but ''un vaso''

So, I think native speakers don't hear their pronunciation _*phonetically *_(as sounds) but
_*phonologically *_(as logical elements).

*un v*aso [umb]
bi*env*enido [emb]


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## Ushuaia

Nunca sobra el proverbio romano: "_Beati hispani_, _qvibvs vivere bibere est_": dichosos los hispanos, para los que *vivir* es *beber*. 

(el "latín" es de wikipedia; disculpen si tiene errores)


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## duvija

Relean lo de Jellby. Y prueben decir 'bobo'. Las dos 'b' van a ser diferentes. Oclusiva la primera, aproximante la segunda. También es oclusiva después de 'm'. 
Las tres (b,d,g,) responden a patrones parecidos.

Con lo de b/v, están neutralizadas, como si todas fueran escritas con 'b'. 
Como la ortografía obliga a escribir m antes de b, y no aclaran que también es obligatorio escribir 'n' antes de v/f, pueden no darse cuenta, pero 'nv' se pronuncian [mb].
Dado que tenemos terreno para variar esos sonidos (digo que la palabra no cambia el significado si la decimos con [v] o con *, hay dialectos que usan algo que suena más a [v] en todas las posiciones (Chile, por ej.). Incluso c/hablante puede variar.*


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## lospazio

Outsider said:


> From what I understand, the letter "v" has no distinct sound value in Spanish. It is pronounced just like a "b". Always. "Vive" is pronounced exactly like "bibe" would be.
> 
> This is like "ge" and "je", which are always pronounced the same, even though they are different spellings.


 
A part of what rosenrot says is true. I was born and raised in Buenos Aires and I remember my first teacher explaining us the difference between /v/ and /b/ sounds (in 1969). But that distinction was artificial and disappeared rapidly. In this area, the use of /v/ is very, very rare and sounds very affected. Some people try to make the distinction when speaking slowly and with care, but in casual style, it vanishes.


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## caniho

Istriano said:


> A friend of mine (from Madrid) said: ''In Spanish it's very easy to pronounce everything because it's pronounced as it's written''
> 
> I replied: It's not true. You write it ''un vaso'' but you pronounce it umbaso.
> 
> He laughed and said: No, we don't pronounce it umbaso but ''un vaso''
> 
> So, I think native speakers don't hear their pronunciation _*phonetically *_(as sounds) but
> _*phonologically *_(as logical elements).
> 
> *un v*aso [umb]
> bi*env*enido [emb]



It's not like that. All literate native speakers are perfectly aware that the b sound is a phoneme with two spellings. Hence the typical question '¿con be o con uve?' On the other hand, if if you see the word 'vaso', there's only a way to pronounce it, even if you have never heard that word. That's what people mean when they say 'el español se pronuncia como se escribe', and they are right for the most part.

Regards.


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## duvija

caniho said:


> It's not like that. All literate native speakers are perfectly aware that the b sound is a phoneme with two spellings. Hence the typical question '¿con be o con uve?' On the other hand, if if you see the word 'vaso', there's only a way to pronounce it, even if you have never heard that word. That's what people mean when they say 'el español se pronuncia como se escribe', and they are right for the most part.
> 
> Regards.


 

I could send you the whole alphabet, spelling and pronunciation, and no, not a single letter sounds like it's spelled. We don't notice, because phonetic processes are automatic, and we are not suppose even to know what they are. I mean, knowing is irrelevant. 
Spanish has no 'v' sound, different from the 'b' sound. Easy as pie.


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## caniho

duvija said:


> I could send you the whole alphabet, spelling and pronunciation, and no, not a single letter sounds like it's spelled. We don't notice, because phonetic processes are automatic, and we are not suppose even to know what they are. I mean, knowing is irrelevant.
> Spanish has no 'v' sound, different from the 'b' sound. Easy as pie.



I think you got the wrong end of the stick. I'm not implying that there is a 1:1  sound correspondence (that would be impossible considering individual and dialectal differences in the language). I only meant that you can read aloud a Spanish word even if you have never heard it before. Most people know that that doesn't happen with other languages, for example English to name just one. In English  you have spellings like read, close and so one, and also obscure words you have seen written in books but never heard, and you are unsure about the pronunciation. All things considered, Spanish is a very "phonetic" language, at least for the written --> oral part (not so much the other way round). There is a, so to speak,  many-to-one relationship between letters and *phonemes* (not sounds).


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## duvija

caniho said:


> I think you got the wrong end of the stick. I'm not implying that there is a 1:1 sound correspondence (that would be impossible considering individual and dialectal differences in the language). I only meant that you can read aloud a Spanish word even if you have never heard it before. Most people know that that doesn't happen with other languages, for example English to name just one. In English you have spellings like read, close and so one, and also obscure words you have seen written in books but never heard, and you are unsure about the pronunciation. All things considered, Spanish is a very "phonetic" language, at least for the written --> oral part (not so much the other way round). There is a, so to speak, many-to-one relationship between letters and *phonemes* (not sounds).


 

Oh, sure, phonemically it's ok. But just ok. You know very well that a foreigner would interpret the two 'b' sounds as 2 different phonemes when they hear it, but as one when they read it (and sound pretty funny).
Listen, this is not a fight. It's fun to write up the whole abecedario and find how different each sound may appear in real life.
Compared to English, any language is phonetic, even Chinese


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## merquiades

I see what you all are saying, but Spanish is phonetic once you learn the rules... that is the rules for Spanish.  Someone, say only knowing English, French, Italian will make the difference between "Vaca" and "Baca" with the pronunciation rules of that language, but native speakers know the v/b are the same sound and logically pronounce it with the rules of the Spanish alphabet.  Thus, it sounds the way it's written.  There are no cases in Spanish like caught, cough, through were no one except natives naturally know the spelling or the pronunciation because they've had years of spelling classes in school.


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## duvija

merquiades said:


> There are no cases in Spanish like caught, cough, through were no one except natives naturally know the spelling or the pronunciation because they've had years of spelling classes in school.


 
Absolutely true. 
Just don't make foreigners pronounce the 'rr'.

And just in case someone here never saw this page...


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## Istriano

merquiades said:


> I see what you all are saying, but Spanish is phonetic once you learn the rules... that is the rules for Spanish.  Someone, say only knowing English, French, Italian will make the difference between "Vaca" and "Baca" with the pronunciation rules of that language, but native speakers know the v/b are the same sound and logically pronounce it with the rules of the Spanish alphabet.  Thus, it sounds the way it's written.  There are no cases in Spanish like caught, cough, through were no one except natives naturally know the spelling or the pronunciation because they've had years of spelling classes in school.




I don't know.
There is no way a foreigner could guess hard r's in words like _sonrisa_, _Enrique _and _Israel _in Spanish, because they're not indicated as such in writing.

I only knew it because we pronounce them with the hard r in Portuguese:
son*r*isa (_so*rri*so_), En*r*ique (_Hen*r*ique_), Is*r*ael (_Is*r*ael_)...


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## duvija

Istriano said:


> I don't know.
> There is no way a foreigner could guess hard r's in words like _sonrisa_, _Enrique _and _Israel _in Spanish, because they're not indicated as such in writing.
> 
> I only knew it because we pronounce them with the hard r in Portuguese:
> son*r*isa (_so*rri*so_), En*r*ique (_Hen*r*ique_), Is*r*ael (_Is*r*ael_)...


 

That's also true, but even if they pronounce them with a soft r, it would still be understood by natives. It's not like the 'ough' ending in English.
Buy I agree in not considering Spanish so naturally phonetic, of course.


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## merquiades

Istriano said:


> I don't know.
> There is no way a foreigner could guess hard r's in words like _sonrisa_, _Enrique _and _Israel _in Spanish, because they're not indicated as such in writing.
> 
> I only knew it because we pronounce them with the hard r in Portuguese:
> son*r*isa (_so*rri*so_), En*r*ique (_Hen*r*ique_), Is*r*ael (_Is*r*ael_)...



It's just not possible to pronouce a weak r after an n or an l.  If I try I have to stop and make a pause. Israel is another story, probably because it's foreign in origin. It is problematic. I just don't pronounce the s.  B/V is easier in comparison though. By learning the sounds and the alphabet, and refraining from comparing to the rules of other languages, it's a piece of cake.

PS. Thanks so much for the link, Duvija.  I'm going to print it out immediately and use it!


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## A huevo

Jellby said:


> Labio-dental "v" does not exist in Spanish. Where it appears, it's usually a contamination of another language or a form of "hypercorrection".
> 
> What there is is two kinds of "b", a hard, plosive *and a soft, fricative [β]. The former is used at the beginning of a phrase or after a consonant, the second is used (inadvertedly by native speakers) between vowels. So, we say:*
> 
> *vivo -> bi'βo*
> *bobo -> bo'βo*
> *no vivo -> no βi'βo*
> 
> *(Similar things happen with "g" and "d").*


 
This is correct, except that * is used at the beginning of a phrase and after nasal sounds only, not all consonants. Any other instance it would be the fricative [β] sound

ex:

curva--- [kurβa]
ambos--- [ambos]
invitaba-- [imbitaβa]*


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## Istriano

In Colombian Spanish it's * curva *[kurba], 
they only soften consonants intervocalically, and not in other positions. 
Funnily enough, Colombian Spanish is held for the ''most correctly spoken Spanish''. 
Maybe because they don't soften or skip consonants as other speakers and enunciate everything as it is written. 



> The occlusive consonants /b/  ("b" or "v"), /d/ ("d"), and /ɡ/ ("g" or "gu") in general Spanish have allophonic changes when pronounced after other  consonant becoming approximants. This  phenomenon does not happen in Colombian Spanish, remaining occlusives.  For example: “the donkey” (El burro) is pronounced [elˈburo] in Colombia, but [elˈβuro] in the rest of America and Spain



*Spanish pronunciation in the Americas


*


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## albertovidal

Totalmente de acuerdo con *Jellby*. La "v" en español es bilabial al igual que la "b" (no existe ninguna diferencia de pronunciación). En inglés y francés (no se si también en otro idiomas) la "v" es labiodental.


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## Istriano

It's funny how I've noticed that Spanish singers pronounce v as [v] and b as * when they sing. I read on Wiki about it, and there they say that's because ''pronouncing v as [v] is considered more poetic.'' *


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## albertovidal

Istriano said:


> It's funny how I've noticed that Spanish singers pronounce v as [v] and b as * when they sing. I read on Wiki about it, and there they say that's because ''pronouncing v as [v] is considered more poetic.'' *


*

You know, I think that many spanish speaking people pronounce "v" as "v" because they don't actually know that "v" and "b" have the same sound.
I tell you this 'cause I've met quite a few people (not necessarily singers), even in Argentina, who believe there is a difference (as far as sound is concerned) between "b" and "v"
Regards*


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## VictorBsAs

Coincido con caniho.
Alguien que habla español (o que conoce todas las reglas) puede tener varias dudas en cómo se escribe una palabra que escucha ¿con b o con v? ¿con h? ¿con g o con j? etc. Pero si lee una palabra que no conoce, no tendrá ninguna duda en cómo pronunciarla. El inglés a veces parece que hay que aprenderlo dos veces, una para escribirlo y otra para pronunciarlo.
Naturalmente, esto no implica que dos personas de lugares distintos pronuncien esa palabra en forma idéntica.
Las reglas incluyen que la 'r' se pronuncia como 'rr' al principio de palabra o después de 'l', 'n' o 's'.


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## albertovidal

Disiento con *VictorBsAs*. El español *debería *leerse como se escribe y no siempre es así.
Por ejemplo, en los países hispanoparlantes, en Andalucía, en las Islas Canarias (que yo conozca) la* "c"* delante de "e" e "i" y la *"z"* las pronunciamos como *"s"*. 
O estoy equivocado?
Saludos


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## Agró

albertovidal said:


> Disiento con *VictorBsAs*. El español *debería *leerse como se escribe y no siempre es así.
> Por ejemplo, en los países hispanoparlantes, en Andalucía, en las Islas Canarias (que yo conozca) la* "c"* delante de "e" e "i" y la *"z"* las pronunciamos como *"s"*.
> O estoy equivocado?
> Saludos



Estás equivocado en un punto: "El español *debería *leerse como se escribe". Eso no es así. 

Si eso fuese así, al pronunciar (o leer, según dices), cosas como "e*n*viar", "e*n*vase", "e*n*voltorio", etc., habría que pronunciar 'n', y no 'm', que es lo normativo (y lo que se hace en realidad, por una cosa llamada "asimilación"); o habría que pronunciar las haches, puesto que están ahí.

Yo más bien pienso el español debería *escribirse* como se *lee/pronuncia*.


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## albertovidal

Agró said:


> Estás equivocado en un punto: "El español *debería *leerse como se escribe". Eso no es así.
> 
> Si eso fuese así, al pronunciar (o leer, según dices), cosas como "e*n*viar", "e*n*vase", "e*n*voltorio", etc., habría que pronunciar 'n', y no 'm', que es lo normativo (y lo que se hace en realidad, por una cosa llamada "asimilación"); o habría que pronunciar las haches, puesto que están ahí.
> 
> Yo más bien pienso el español debería *escribirse* como se *lee/pronuncia*.



Me hago cargo de mi error y coincido contigo.
Lo que quería explicar es que para pronunciar español, muchas veces, el regionalismo modifica las pronunciaciones y en esto no tiene nada que ver la cultura de la gente sino cómo el idioma se ha asimilado en cada región.
Saludos


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## Ushuaia

Istriano said:


> It's funny how I've noticed that Spanish singers pronounce v as [v] and b as * when they sing. I read on Wiki about it, and there they say that's because ''pronouncing v as [v] is considered more poetic.'' *


*

More poetic... pretty cheesy... it lies on the eye of the beholder. Anyhow: when singing, it's sometimes "easier" to slip in a "v" sound. Maybe Duvija can tell us why; all I can say is I've found myself doing exactly that in my singing classes, regardless of how artificial the "dental v" sounds to me in everyday speech.*


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## duvija

Agró said:


> Estás equivocado en un punto: "El español *debería *leerse como se escribe". Eso no es así.
> 
> Si eso fuese así, al pronunciar (o leer, según dices), cosas como "e*n*viar", "e*n*vase", "e*n*voltorio", etc., habría que pronunciar 'n', y no 'm', que es lo normativo (y lo que se hace en realidad, por una cosa llamada "asimilación"); o habría que pronunciar las haches, puesto que están ahí.
> 
> Yo más bien pienso el español debería *escribirse* como se *lee/pronuncia*.


 

Andá a chillarle a la RAE con eso . Cada vez nos alejamos más... Pero esto es cuento viejo.


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## chileno

A todo esto coincido con lo que rosenrot respondió en el 2007, porque a mí también me enseñaron que la "V" era "labio-dental", y añadiría que en Chile mucha gente pronuncia la "uve" en la mayoría de las instancias pero que hay ciertas palabras que se pronuncian a como salga, algunas veces como "B" otras como "V".


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## duvija

chileno said:


> A todo esto coincido con lo que rosenrot respondió en el 2007, porque a mí también me enseñaron que la "V" era "labio-dental", y añadiría que en Chile mucha gente pronuncia la "uve" en la mayoría de las instancias pero que hay ciertas palabras que se pronuncian a como salga, algunas veces como "B" otras como "V".


 

La 'v' y la 'f' se llaman 'labiodentales'. A pesar de eso, nosotros la 'f' casi la soplamos (en comparación con otros idiomas) y la 'v', en Chile, sí, se usa, pero también neutralizada con la 'b'.


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## chileno

Claro. Se me olvidó mencionar que la "B" sufre del mismo problema. Para algunas personas "Baca" y "Vaca" es lo mismo.


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