# Judeo-Aramaic: the definite article



## Michael Zwingli

In historical Judeo-Aramaic is הַ־‎ or rather (־א‎, ־י‎, ־תא) used as the definite article?


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## Drink

You'd have to define which dialect we're talking about to have a more specific discussion. But basically, the ה־ prefix as a definite article is Hebrew, and _not_ Aramaic. All forms of Judeo-Aramaic use the ־א suffix, but in many dialects (especially Eastern dialects) it is no longer a definite article, but a mere noun marker, as nouns in those dialects almost do not exist without it anymore.


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## Michael Zwingli

Drink said:


> ...but in many dialects (especially Eastern dialects) it is no longer a definite article, but a mere noun marker, as nouns in those dialects almost do not exist without it anymore.


Which begs a question...is the variation very great among the dialects of Aramaic/Syriac (not really knowing what to call this language, and being a bit confused as to whether Aramaic is best considered a western dialect of Syriac, or Syriac is best considered the eastern dialect of Aramaic, I sometimes think that something like _Ashuretic_ might be the best umbrella term)?


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## Drink

They are all called Aramaic. Syriac is one specific Eastern Aramaic dialect. There is no need for a new term.

Anyway, yes, in the later Eastern dialects, including Syriac, and including Jewish Babylonian Aramaic, the ־א is hardly a definite article anymore, and has become the new unmarked form of the noun. And the masculine plural version of it is -ē (as opposed to Western -ayyā); this -ē is spelled ־א in Syriac (making it indistinguishable from the singular in unvocalized texts, leading to the development of a special plural marker diacritic), but is spelled ־י in Jewish dialects.

In Western dialects, ־א is still a definite article, with the indefinite endings still in common use. And the masculine plural form of it is -ayyā, spelled ־יא.


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## Michael Zwingli

Drink said:


> They are all called Aramaic. Syriac is one specific Eastern Aramaic dialect.


Good...at least I have that nailed down.


Drink said:


> Anyway, yes, in the later Eastern dialects, including Syriac, and including Jewish Babylonian Aramaic, the ־א is hardly a definite article anymore, and has become the new unmarked form of the noun. And the masculine plural version of it is -ē (as opposed to Western -ayyā); this -ē is spelled ־א in Syriac (making it indistinguishable from the singular in unvocalized texts, leading to the development of a special plural marker diacritic), but is spelled ־י in Jewish dialects.
> 
> In Western dialects, ־א is still a definite article, with the indefinite endings still in common use. And the masculine plural form of it is -ayyā, spelled ־יא.


Thank you, Drink.


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