# Ancient Greek: Nenikekas Galilaie



## ncveticanin

Can anyone help me?
How do you spell _Nenikekas Galilaie _in Ancient Greek?
 
Thanks


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## anthodocheio

I supose it is 
Νενίκηκας Γαλιλαίε
but I'm not sure and I haven't put the ancient accents.


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## ncveticanin

Thanks a lot


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## Kevman

I think anthodocheio is right (based on a Google search for "Γαλιλαιε").
Here it is with the ancient accents in Palatino Linotype font (it should be an acute on the antepenult in the first word and a circumflex on the long penult before a short ultima in the second):
Nενίκηκας Γαλιλαῖε


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## ncveticanin

Thanks,

I've also found following accentuation:

Νενίκηκάς Γαλιλαίε
 
Could this be right?


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## Kevman

ncveticanin said:


> Νενίκηκάς Γαλιλαίε
> 
> Could this be right?


I'm still just an amateur at this, but I don't think so. 

The acute accent in Γαλιλαίε may be a modernized form, but I'm fairly certain that the circumflex is more correct due to the long penult/short ultima rule.

As far as the second accent in Νενίκηκας, that would only happen if the following word was enclitic, which Γαλιλαίε is not. An example of an enclitic might be a small word like *με*, a direct object form of the first person singular pronoun. So the second accent would occur in Νενίκηκάς με, Γαλιλαῖε ("Thou hast defeated me, O Galilean"), for example.


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## Billopoulos

Damn, I've never seen it as "Νενίκηκας Γαλιλαίε" or such, only as "Νενίκηκάς με, Ναζωραίε" or "Νενίκηκάς σε, Σολομών"...


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## ncveticanin

This is the famous quote spoken by Emperor Julian the Apostate at the moment of death. He always addressed Christians as _Galileans_.
So, I beleive Kevman is quite right.

Thanks to both of you

Nenad


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## Kevman

Billopoulos said:


> Damn, I've never seen it as "Νενίκηκας Γαλιλαίε" or such, only as "Νενίκηκάς με, Ναζωραίε" or "Νενίκηκάς σε, Σολομών"...


Interesting. Maybe this is a translation rift between the Greek Orthodox and the Latin Catholic traditions. I wonder whether Julian himself would have spoken it in Greek or Latin (if he spoke it at all--apparently it's apocryphal).

Anyway, my feeling is that, being in the singular, "Galilean" refers to Christianity in general, or perhaps _The_ Galilean: Christ himself, as a personification of the faith. In this sense I'm sure that Ναζωραῖε (which I'm guessing means "Nazarene") is pretty much equivalent.

As for Νενίκηκάς σε, Σολομῶν ("Thou hast defeated thee, Solomon"?)--that doesn't make much sense to me at all. 



_EDIT_--Ah, it's Νενίκηκά σε, Σολομῶν ("_*I*_ have surpassed thee, Solomon"), and Justinian is supposed to have said it upon completion of the Hagia Sofia.


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## anthodocheio

Kevman said:


> _EDIT_--Ah, it's Νενίκηκά σε, Σολομῶν ("_*I*_ have surpassed thee, Solomon"), and Justinian is supposed to have said it upon completion of the Hagia Sofia.


 
You are write Kevman!

And first of all, you may all have a happy new year! 

Now, about "Galilean" and "Nazarene", we, orthodoxs, use both the terms. It just depend's on the quote, and this one is as Billopoulos said.


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## ncveticanin

No one could say whether this is apocryph or not, because both pagan and christian historians recorded it. However, one can always wonder whether they were near him while he was dying.
But, it is most likely that (if he had spoken those words) he said that quote in Greek. He was Neoplatonist, educated by Greek scholar, and (most likely) used that language, rather then Latin.
But, who can tell?


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## ncveticanin

Oh, yes, one more thing

According to the legend, he is speaking about Jesus, _the Galilean_


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