# FR: aimé-je



## tubes

Hi,

I'm confused by this sentence, which I found in a book by Vercors: "Pourquoi aimé-je tant cette pièce?"
I assume it means "Why do I like this room so much?", but shouldn't it be "Pourquoi aime-je tant cette pièce?" ?
Is it a typing error, or is it some hidden aspect of French grammar that I've failed to come across before? Thanks,

tubes


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## Bléros

It's not a typing error, it's just an old practice. It should be "aimè-je" though.


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## Maître Capello

No, _aim*é*-je_ is correct and _aim*è*-je_ is accepted since the 1990 orthography rectification. (Note that both are pronounced [emɛʒ] (« émè-je »), thus the rectification…)


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## tubes

OK, thanks. But what's the rule? I can only guess that it's: when asking a question in the present tense, the present form of the verb should be replaced by the past participle. This seems strange, and certainly not something I've ever heard about. Could you please clarify the rule and perhaps give me a pointer to where I can find out more of this kind of thing?

Best wishes,

tubes


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## Maître Capello

First, please note that this is by no means a past participle. Second, it is a very *literary* way to ask a question in the first person singular for verbs ending in _-er_ and only for those. The purpose of the accent is only for the euphony…
_
Aimé-je ?
Aimes-tu ?
Aime-t-il ?
Aimons-nous ?
Aimez-vous ?
Aiment-ils ?_


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## timpeac

It's not for -er verbs only Maître Capello - puis-je, dois-je,
vais-je etc.

Also - I believe that not all -er verbs can do it. Not mangé-je for example.


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## joueurdebasson

I think Maître Capello was referring to the accent on the "e" was only applicable to -er verbs. In the cases of other verbs the first person singular verb in inversion doesn't resemble the past participle.


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## itka

That's right !
The inversion is one of the normal ways of asking a question in french, with whichever verb :
tu veux ---> veux-tu ?

But in the case of the verbs ending with *-er* (1st group) in present, *1st person, singular,* it would be :
je parle ---> *parle-je ? which is impossible to pronounce. So we add an acute accent on the -e :
je parle ---> parl*é*-je

Look the examples MC gave.


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## Punky Zoé

Hello

Please, note that this form  (1st person and 1st group verbs) is sometimes written, in literature, but extremely rare in spoken language.


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## tilt

This form is all the more rare since people tend not to invert the subject anymore, to ask questions, in French. It's becoming obsolete because useless.

First group verbs are not the only ones to follow such a rule, yet.
It's true for any verb which has its conjugated first person singular form ending with _-e_:
_Cueillir -> Je cueille -> Cueillé-je ?_

Note that some other verbs have a completely specific form in this case:
_ Pouvoir -> je peux -> puis-je ?_


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## floise

tilt said:


> This form is all the more rare since people tend not to invert the subject anymore, to ask questions, in French. It's becoming obsolete because useless.


Tilt,

When saying 'it's becoming obsolete because useless, does your 'it' refer to inverting subject and verb (in general) or just the cases discussed in this thread, such as _aimé-je_. If you mean the former, are you saying that people mostly say 'tu veux.....?' rather than 'veux-tu.....?'

floise


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## tilt

_It_ refers to "this form". But in fact, both are becoming obsolete. People do mostly say _Tu veux ?_ rather than _Veux-tu ?  _in everyday life; even those who still consider this as a mistake, like I do.
What I meant is that the cases discussed here are becoming obsolete because inverting the subject does too. I think they would be still quite common if people weren't used to compose questions like statements.


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## floise

Thanks, Tilt.

I do like learning about evolutions in languages. 

Here in Québec, the non-inverted form is not as common as in France.

I will be more attentive to the use of the non-inverted form as I listen to French movies or read modern French novels.

floise


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## itka

This thread was open only to clarify this sentence :





> "Pourquoi aimé-je tant cette pièce?"


 Not to say it's the best way to ask a question.

Personally, I often use : "Est-ce que... ?" for asking questions. Others prefer the inversion. The third way (only changing the tone of voice) is quite common when the situation is not formal.


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## Punky Zoé

itka said:


> This thread was open only to clarify this sentence : Not to say it's the best way to ask a question.
> Personally, I often use : "Est-ce que... ?" for asking questions. Others prefer the inversion. The third way (only changing the tone of voice) is quite common when the situation is not formal.


You're right Itka (as usual ...), but it is an excerpt of a novel, then literature, not so uncommon (and furthermore more than 50 years ago).


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## Tupinambá

Maître Capello said:


> No, _aim*é*-je_ is correct and _aim*è*-je_ is accepted since the 1990 orthography rectification. (Note that both are pronounced [emɛʒ] (« émè-je »), thus the rectification…)


Excusez-moi de poser cette question, mais est-ce que l'on prononce [e'mɛʒ] ou bien [e'mɛʒə] ?
Merci.


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## Maître Capello

Il me semble l'avoir clairement indiqué.


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## All in One

It can be pronounced [emɛʒə] (with a schwa) before a consonant but it doesn't have to.


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## Maître Capello

Vraiment ?  Je ne prononcerais jamais le schwa pour ma part (enfin, sauf peut-être dans un vers).

De toute façon, ce n'est pas (ou plus) un tour que l'on emploie à l'oral… sauf pour plaisanter !


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## Tupinambá

Maître Capello said:


> sauf pour plaisanter !


Merci.  Donc ça peut rimer?

neige: nɛʒ
aimè-je: emɛʒ

Le pronome « je » [ʒə] perd-il le schwa toutes les fois qu'on fait l'inversion?


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