# Classical Persian:در ظلم بندی بر اهل جهان



## Qureshpor

In the following Sa'di couplet, what sort of grammatical tense/mood is "bandii" in?

اگر خواهی از نیک بختی نشان
در ظلم بندی بر اهل جهان 

Should n't one expect "biband" or just "band" instead of "bandii"?


----------



## Qureshpor

QURESHPOR said:


> In the following Sa'di couplet, what sort of grammatical tense/mood is "bandii" in?
> 
> اگر خواهی از نیک بختی نشان
> در ظلم بندی بر اهل جهان
> 
> Should n't one expect "biband" or just "band" instead of "bandii"?



*Is n't there anyone in the whole wide Persian speaking world who can understand Sa'di?*


----------



## IMANAKBARI

If i understand your question !

It's Bandi :
if you want to close the door of injustice on people in the world.


----------



## searcher123

QURESHPOR said:


> *Is n't there anyone in the whole wide Persian speaking world who can understand Sa'di?*



Of course there is, but:

1. maybe will not browse the forum. 
2. maybe cannot explain so that you believe him. 
3. maybe don't want to you assume him as a bigheaded man that is assumed himself as a knowing 

BTW, that mean بند for me. In other word, the meaning is 'don't tyrannize anybody if you want to be a blissful man'.


----------



## Qureshpor

IMANAKBARI said:


> If i understand your question !
> 
> It's Bandi :
> if you want to close the door of injustice on people in the world.




Thank you Iman for the reply.

اگر خواهی از نیک بختی نشان
در ظلم بندی بر اهل جهان 

I do understand the couplet, quite clearly.

If you seek even a trace of good fortune
Then you ought to close the door of oppression to all people

i.e. do n't opress anybody.

But, my query is about بندی . Is it in the subjunctive or jussive mood, grammatically speaking?


----------



## IMANAKBARI

QURESHPOR said:


> Thank you Iman for the reply.
> 
> اگر خواهی از نیک بختی نشان
> در ظلم بندی بر اهل جهان
> 
> I do understand the couplet, quite clearly.
> 
> If you seek even a trace of good fortune
> Then you ought to close the door of oppression to all people
> 
> i.e. do n't opress anybody.
> 
> But, my query is about بندی . Is it in the subjunctive or jussive mood, grammatically speaking?



you're welcome.

subjunctive or jussive ? no ! never ! neither subjunctive nor jussive. It's Conditional beacause the couplet start with "If".


----------



## Qureshpor

IMANAKBARI said:


> you're welcome.
> 
> subjunctive or jussive ? no ! never ! neither subjunctive nor jussive. It's Conditional beacause the couplet start with "If".



Perhaps there is a misunderstanding between the two of us in the use of grammatical terminology. But, this is not important.

اگر خواهی از نیک بختی نشان
در ظلم بندی بر اهل جهان 

I understand that the first line is the "If (shart)" clause and the second line is the " then(javaab)" clause. بندی for me seems almost like an imperative (fi'l amr). So it is بندی which is causing me trouble.


----------



## IMANAKBARI

can you cite the following verses?


----------



## Qureshpor

IMANAKBARI said:


> can you cite the following verses?



Sorry, I don't follow your question!


----------



## IMANAKBARI

*چو ایزد تو را این همه کام داد
 چرا بر نیاری سر انجام داد
 چو عدل است پیرایه ی خسروی
 چرا عدل را دل نداری قوی
 تو را مملکت پایداری کند
 اگر معدلت دستیاری کند
 چو نوشیروان عدل کرد اختیار
 کنون نام نیک است از او یادگار
 ز تأثیر عدل است آرام مُلک
 که از عدل حاصل شود کام مُلک
 جهان را به انصاف آباد دار
 دل اهل انصاف را شاد دار
 جهان را به از عدل معمار نیست
 که بالاتر از معدلت کار نیست
 تو را زین به آخر چه حاصل بود
 که نامت شهنشاه عادل بود
 اگر خواهی از نیک بختی نشان
 در ظلم بندی بر اهل جهان
 رعایت دریغ از رعیت مدار
 مراد دل داد خواهان بر آر


مدار et برآر are jussive but بندی is conditional !!!
 *


----------



## HZKhan

It's slightly literal translation in Urdu would be:
"Agar tum nek-baxtii kaa nishaan chaahte ho to tum ahl e jahaaN ke (chehroN) ke aage se zulm kaa darwaaza band kar do ge."

In my opinion, the first verb 'xaahi' is in the conditional mood, while the second verb 'bandii' is in the subjunctive mood. But I could be wrong, as I have very little knowledge regarding the correct use of the grammatical terms.
If 'biband' were  used, then the meaning of the couplet would change subtly, as it would have modified the verb into the imperative. But that is not the case here, since the poet has merely opined as to what someone would do, if they wanted to become fortunate.


----------



## eskandar

^ I agree about the Urdu translation. I would adjust QP SaaHib's English translation accordingly:

If you seek even a trace of good fortune
Then *you'll* close the door of oppression to all people

I don't know what the appropriate grammatical term for this mood is, myself, but I take it to be something akin to the English "if you know what's good for you, *you'll* keep your mouth shut" - something between indicative and imperative?


----------



## Qureshpor

I am grateful to my friends for all the responses.

In another thread, aaqaa-ye-Aryamp suggested that the word "bandii" could be  وجه تاکیدی یا سفارشی mood to which aaqaa-ye-Aryamp responded that he agreed with this and this was the "jussive" mood. Here, he said, it works like the imperative.

http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=2668141&highlight=اگر+خواهی+از+نیک+بختی+نشان

(Post 17 onwards)

I too am inclined to view this construction as a "jussive" construction with an imperative kind of meaning as opposed to مضارع (not subjunctive) with a future meaning. 

If you seek even a trace of good fortune
Then (it is better that you) close the door of oppression to all people.


----------



## Stranger_

Qureshpor SaaHib, what about:

If you seek even a trace of good fortune
Then *I would expect you to* close the door of oppression to all people?


----------



## Qureshpor

Stranger SaaHib, I think the "acid test" would be how the Persian speaker's mind perceives the meaning without any "polluting" influence from people such as me. You, eskandar SaaHib and sapnachaandni SaaHibah are triply fortunate that you speak (at the very least) Persian, English and Urdu. So you are best placed to convey the meaning into my thick head! Now, how would you convey the sense of "bandii" to the likes of me?


----------



## Stranger_

> Now, how would you convey the sense of "bandii" to the likes of me?


Well, I am no wiser than anyone else regarding its grammatical form but I agree with all translations provided above, including mine and yours in post #13.



> ....to tum ahl e jahaaN ke (chehroN) ke aage se zulm kaa darwaaza band kar do ge.





> Then *you'll close the door of oppression to all people*





> Then (it is better that you) close the door of oppression to all people.



I would say that even your earlier understanding of it (in post #5) is perfectly fine and there could very well be an implied (باید که) at the beginning of the second مصراع, thus I mean:

اگر خواهی از نیک بختی نشان
(باید که) در ظلم بندی بر اهل جهان

دقیقاً عینِ ساختاری که حضرتِ حافظ در مقطعِ یکی از غزلیاتش استفاده کرده است

گر در سرت هوای وصال است حافظا
باید که خاک درگه اهل هنر شوی


----------



## Qureshpor

Thank you for everyone's contribution in this thread. Much appreciated.


----------



## Qureshpor

Qureshpor said:


> Perhaps there is a misunderstanding between the two of us in the use of grammatical terminology. But, this is not important.
> 
> اگر خواهی از نیک بختی نشان
> در ظلم بندی بر اهل جهان
> 
> I understand that the first line is the "If (shart)" clause and the second line is the " then(javaab)" clause. بندی for me seems almost like an imperative (fi'l amr). So it is بندی which is causing me trouble.


I have found out that in Old Persian, there was a majhuul -e added to the verbal root to provide "polite imperative" sense. Could this be something left over from the past.

PERSIAN LANGUAGE   i. Early New Persian – Encyclopaedia Iranica

"EJP and ENPA share the inherited imperative endings -ø/-_ēd_ (sg./pl.), *and also the  singular “polite imperative” in -ē, e.g., EJP āgah-om kunē tō ay sayyidī “(please) inform us, oh my master”*; it occurs also in the MP Psalter, but not in other varieties of MP or in later NP (Lazard, 1963, §477; Paul, 2013, §150.a)."

Please note: EJP is Early Jewish Persian and ENPA is Early New Persian spoken in North Eastern Iran but written in Arabic script.


----------



## Eastern Ludicrous Writer

Qureshpor said:


> در ظلم بندی بر اهل جهان


بندی is ببندی originally .... so it is مضارع التزامی verb بستن....on other hand تو ببندی در ظلم بر جهانیان


----------



## Qureshpor

Eastern Ludicrous Writer said:


> بندی is ببندی originally .... so it is مضارع التزامی verb بستن....on other hand تو ببندی در ظلم بر جهانیان


Thank you @Eastern Ludicrous Writer for this explanation.


----------



## Derakhshan

From _A Grammar of Early Judaeo-Persian _pp. 124:


> There are a few examples of a 2Sg. Present Indicative used in imperative sense, which is understood to convey a "softened command":
> 
> y՚ s(y)dy *bprwšy* [bif(i)rōšē] "oh my Lord, *sell* (it)"
> 
> *՚ghwm kwny* [āgah-om kunē] tw ՚y sydy ՚bw yՙqwb "*inform me*, you, oh Sir Abū Yaՙqūb
> 
> pdly *kwny* wcw՚b n՚m՚ *nybys[y]* "*do* virtue and *write* an answer (to) the letter"






Qureshpor said:


> it occurs also in the MP Psalter, but not in other varieties of MP or in later NP



My source conflicts with this statement. It states in a footnote that this "softened command" 2Sg *was* used in ENP:


> 3 Also in ENP (Lazard §477ff). Formally, this should not be considered an imperative, because it is negated with the prefix _na_ (instead of _ma_) in ENP.



In fact, the 2Sg. -_ī_ is still used in the modern spoken language as a prohibitive, usually with -_ā_.

_narī ā!_ "Don't you go!"


----------



## Qureshpor

^ Thank you. So, would you say "بندی" is 2nd Person singular polite imperative or second person singular subjunctive?


----------



## Derakhshan

Well, I don't perceive it as an imperative. I perceive  an implied باید که like another poster said.

But we are modern speakers, and we've shown in this thread that 2Sg -_ī_ could be an imperative in ENP, so who can say?

Still, I lean towards this particular instance being subjunctive not imperative.


----------



## Qureshpor

Derakhshan said:


> Well, I don't perceive it as an imperative. I perceive  an implied باید که like another poster said.
> 
> But we are modern speakers, and we've shown in this thread that 2Sg -_ī_ could be an imperative in ENP, so who can say?


Thank you. I think its a fair response. Against the "imperative" option, I suppose one could say Sa'di did not belong to the Early New Persian period.


----------



## Eastern Ludicrous Writer

Is here, anybody can analyze and explain what is
باید که تو در ظلم ببندی
from grammar view and rules?


----------



## Qureshpor

Derakhshan said:


> From _A Grammar of Early Judaeo-Persian _pp. 124: My source conflicts with this statement. It states in a footnote that this "softened command" 2Sg *was* used in ENP: In fact, the 2Sg. -_ī_ is still used in the modern spoken language as a prohibitive, usually with -_ā_. _narī ā!_ "Don't you go!"


Forgetting that the 2nd person singular in Old Persian had a majhuul ی, it gradually became ma3ruuf, i.e it changed from "bande" > "bandii".  So in Sa'di's couplet "bandii" is not in the subjunctive but indicative mood and is here being used as a "polite imperative".
What is a polite imperative? (See post 12)
Let's assume I am sending someone to buy a few things for me from the market. 
I could say:

a) Go to the market and buy me x, y and z. This would be imperative and could be construed as somewhat rude.
b) Please go to the market and buy me x, y and z. Still imperative but polite.
c) You will go to the market and buy me x, y and z. 

In c) we have an indicative being used as a kind of indirect imperative.


----------



## Qureshpor

Eastern Ludicrous Writer said:


> Is here, anybody can analyze and explain what is
> باید که تو در ظلم ببندی
> from grammar view and rules?


Yes there is.

Eastern (Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan and India) grammar books describe فعل امر in the three persons as follows:

Using the verb بستن (with or without  بہ  prefix)

First person: باید کہ ببندم / باید کہ ببندیم -Usual English equivalent would be- Let me close/Let us close

Second person: ببند/ ببندید - Close!

Third person: باید کہ ببندد/ باید کہ ببندند - Let him / her close / Let them close

Accordingly باید کہ در را ببندی can only mean, "You ought to close the door". 

English grammar books give the mood of the first person as "Hortative", the second person as "Imperative" and the third person as "Jussive".


----------



## Eastern Ludicrous Writer

PersoLatin said:


> در ظلم را بر جهانیان باید ببندی of course بندی is second person imperative but this is not a normal imperative where a physical outcome is expected,


Each verb has grammatical structure. With their structure we classify them in their tense and person. Now we have بندی which we know the origin is ببندی from بستن. Till now everything is clear!!! Now we want analyze it, and to know what tense and person is this verb:
Unfortunately there is some misunderstanding about some verbs as in different tense and persons have exactly same shape!
One of these kind of confusion is مضارع التزامی and  فعل امر and ب تاکید - زینت
look here:
مضارع التزامی فعل بستن
ببندم
ببندی
*ببندد
ببندیم
ببندید
ببندند*
Now  فعل امر
ببند
*ببندد
ببندیم
ببندید
ببندند*
Now ب تاکید
*ببندم
ببندی
ببندد
ببندیم
ببندید
ببندند*
so back to our word ببندی
If it is the second person and imperative so it must be  ببند or  بند
Yes, We have ی in the end of verb in classic Farsi literature, which is another category.

The other thing is باید, it is coming from بایستن
بایستن  is one of that kind of verbs with only few tense and person. We call it فعل وجهی, (What is name of this verb in English?) this verb in English means Must, yes but in Farsi does not mean only imperative verb!
باید که سخن از آزادی بشریت گفت
here it has been used to emphasis  on the main verb گفتن, it is not امر


----------



## Eastern Ludicrous Writer

Stranger_ said:


> اگر خواهی از نیک بختی نشان
> (باید که) در ظلم بندی بر اهل جهان


Here the word اگر or IF make it clear, you can not use the verb Imperative ( as I know) with IF, only التزام can be used. As اگر is التزام
اگر می خواهی پول به دست آوری* باید که* کار *بکنی*
if you want to say some thing in امر, usually never use اگر !!!


----------



## Qureshpor

I found the following sentence in a Persian grammar book written by an Iranian. (Muhammad Ibrahim 1841)

امّا خاطرت باشد کہ پیش از خوابیدن امشب قدری آبِ گرم *بیاوری* تا پاھایم را بشویم۔

But bear in mind that before going to sleep tonight, bring some warm water so that I may wash my feet.

This also appears to be a polite imperative.


----------



## Eastern Ludicrous Writer

Qureshpor said:


> پیش اش


پیش از  probably, yes?



Qureshpor said:


> Muhammad Ibrahim 1841


Who is he? do you mean 1841 as a year? text is modern style.

امّا خاطرت باشد که پیش از (ش ) خوابیدن امشب، قدری آبِ گرم *بیاوری* تا پاھایم را *بشویم*۔
These both verbs are مضارع التزامی from structure view.

Do you mean in this grammar book says that بیاوری is polite imperative?


----------



## Qureshpor

Eastern Ludicrous Writer said:


> پیش از  probably, yes?
> 
> 
> Who is he? do you mean 1841 as a year? text is modern style.
> 
> امّا خاطرت باشد که پیش از (ش ) خوابیدن امشب، قدری آبِ گرم *بیاوری* تا پاھایم را *بشویم*۔
> These both verbs are مضارع التزامی from structure view.
> 
> Do you mean in this grammar book says that بیاوری is polite imperative?


Yes, it is پیش از . It was a typing error on my part.

He is the author of a Persian grammar called "A Grammar of the Persian Language" published in London in 1841.

No, the grammar book does not say بیاوری is a polite imperative and I did not say this either. It seems to be the same construction as Sa'di's couplet in which he uses بندی. To my understanding it appears that both are in the polite imperative form. (See #18 and #26)


----------



## Eastern Ludicrous Writer

Qureshpor said:


> couplet in which he uses بندی.


Have you ever seen imperative word (polite or impolite!) with ی as بندی? or ببندی? 
I mean when we conjugate the verb of بستن , we reach to ببندی
anyhow that is ok! forget about what kind of verb it is.

 Most interesting part of this book is the sample you show us. 
*امّا خاطرت باشد که پیش از خوابیدن، امشب، قدری آبِ گرم بیاوری تا پاھایم را بشویم۔ *
sentence is far from 1220 Iranian calendar or 1840 Georgian one!!! you see old book normally only quote or bring example from classic books and rarely quote common people speaking.


----------



## Qureshpor

Eastern Ludicrous Writer said:


> Have you ever seen imperative word (polite or impolite!) with ی as بندی? or ببندی?
> I mean when we conjugate the verb of بستن , we reach to ببندی
> anyhow that is ok! forget about what kind of verb it is.
> 
> Most interesting part of this book is the sample you show us.
> *امّا خاطرت باشد که پیش از خوابیدن، امشب، قدری آبِ گرم بیاوری تا پاھایم را بشویم۔ *
> sentence is far from 1220 Iranian calendar or 1840 Georgian one!!! you see old book normally only quote or bring example from classic books and rarely quote common people speaking.


 OK, I shall forget about what kind of verb it is. Please see the attachment. (Middle of page 190)


----------



## Eastern Ludicrous Writer

Qureshpor said:


> OK, I shall forget about what kind of verb it is. Please see the attachment. (Middle of page 190)


Thanks a lot!!!
Very very interesting, have you got the complete book? is there any address to download it?


----------



## Qureshpor

Eastern Ludicrous Writer said:


> Thanks a lot!!! Very very interesting, have you got the complete book? is there any address to download it?


A grammar of the Persian language. To which are subjoined several dialogues; with an alphabetical list of the English and Persian terms of grammar, and an appendix on the use of Arabic words : Ibrahim, Muhammad : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive


----------



## Eastern Ludicrous Writer

Qureshpor said:


> A grammar of the Persian language. To which are subjoined several dialogues; with an alphabetical list of the English and Persian terms of grammar, and an appendix on the use of Arabic words : Ibrahim, Muhammad : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive


thanks!!!!


----------



## Derakhshan

Doesn't seem to be imperative to me, just a subjunctive (مضارع التزامی).

خاطرت باشد که ... قدری آب گرم بیاوری

"Remember *to bring *some warm water..."


----------



## Qureshpor

On the same lines as my query in the OP is the following line from Gulistan-i-Sa'di.

اجازت فرمائی تا من وزیر را بکشم۔ پس آنگاہ بقصاصِ او بفرمائی خونِ من ریختن۔

One could translate it something like.

Grant me permission to kill the minister. Then at that moment, as a retaliation for him, you order my killing. 

The first فرمائی is in the subjunctive mood because there is an اگر understood at the beginning of the sentence. But what tense is the second بفرمائی in?


----------



## Derakhshan

The version on Ganjoor has:


> اجازت فرمای تا وزیر را بکشم آنگه به قصاص او بفرمای خون مرا ریختن



فرمای and بفرمای , just simple imperatives.


----------



## Qureshpor

Derakhshan said:


> The version on Ganjoor has:
> 
> 
> فرمای and بفرمای , just simple imperatives.


Thank you Derakhshan for the corrections. Further along in the Gulistan, we have the following.

باری پسرش گفت۔ آن چنان کہ در آداب درس نظر می فرمائی در آداب نفسم ھمچنین تامل فرمای تا اگر در اخلاق من ناپسندی بینی کہ مرا آن پسند ھمی نماید بر آنم اطلاع *فرمائی* تا بہ تبدیل آن سعی کنم۔

What tense is the highlighted word?


----------



## PersoLatin

^^ The three occurrences of فرمائیدن in this section have the following tenses: present, imperative & finally *subjunctive*.



Qureshpor said:


> در آداب درس نظر می فرمائی


This should be either آداب درس من نظر (as in Ganjoor) or آداب درسم نظر which Is in style of  آداب نفسم


----------



## Qureshpor

PersoLatin said:


> ^^ The three occurrences of فرمائیدن in this section have the following tenses: present, imperative & finally *subjunctive*.
> 
> This should be either آداب درس من نظر (as in Ganjoor) or آداب درسم نظر which Is in style of  آداب نفسم


Thank youPersoLatin for the missing word. For the first part and bearing in mind my query in the OP, can a subjunctive be used in an imperative sense?


----------



## PersoLatin

Qureshpor said:


> For the first part and bearing in mind my query in the OP, can a subjunctive be used in an imperative sense?


I don’t know exactly what part you are referring to so I will answer the OP below:



Qureshpor said:


> اگر خواهی از نیک بختی نشان
> در ظلم بندی بر اهل جهان
> 
> Should n't one expect "biband" or just "band" instead of "bandii"?


bandi/بندی here is in subjunctive mood since the speaker is uncertain her/his idea/suggestion will be acted on by the listener and as you have also indicted above, باید/should is implied here but even if باید was used explicitly the mood would stay subjunctive.

If instead of اگر خواهی  we had میخواهی then you could replace بندی with بند or ببند i.e. changing to imperative.

If you change بندی to بسته شود i.e. to third person passive form then you’ll have jussive subjective mood which is an imperative in essence، So in prose & in modern Persian:
اگر نشانی از نیک بختی می‌خواهی
درهای ظلم [باید] بر اهل جهان بسته شود


----------



## Qureshpor

PersoLatin said:


> I don’t know exactly what part you are referring to so I will answer the OP below:
> 
> bandi/بندی here is in subjunctive mood since the speaker is uncertain her/his idea/suggestion will be acted on by the listener and as you have also indicted above, باید/should is implied here but even if باید was used explicitly the mood would stay subjunctive.
> 
> If instead of اگر خواهی  we had میخواهی then you could replace بندی with بند or ببند i.e. changing to imperative.
> 
> If you change بندی to بسته شود i.e. the to the third person passive form then you’ll have the jussive subjective mood which is an imperative in essence، So in prose & rephrased in modern Persian:
> اگر نشانی از نیک بختی می‌خواهی
> درهای ظلم بر اهل جهان [باید] بسته شود


Thank you PersoLatin. My query, in a nutshell, is this.

The words "بندی" and "فرمائی" by common consensus are subjunctives. As far as I can see they are being used as imperatives. Is it usual for subjunctives in the second person singular to be used as imperatives and does this usage provide a bit of politeness as opposed to the blunt imperative?


----------



## mannoushka

Pers


PersoLatin said:


> ^^ The three occurrences of فرمائیدن in this section have the following tenses:



I am sorry to feel I must ask this side question: is there such a verb or do you not in fact mean _farmoudan_?


----------



## PersoLatin

Qureshpor said:


> The words "بندی" and "فرمائی" by common consensus are subjunctives. As far as I can see they are being used as imperatives. Is it usual for subjunctives in the second person singular to be used as imperatives and does this usage provide a bit of politeness as opposed to the blunt imperative?





Qureshpor said:


> بر آنم اطلاع *فرمائی* تا بہ تبدیل آن سعی کنم


اطلاع فرمائی here is the polite version of اطلاع بدهی (to inform) and فرمائی is specifically used to express politeness, the same as in modern Persian, anyway neither is imperative.

“that you would inform me of it so I try to change it”


----------



## PersoLatin

mannoushka said:


> I am sorry to feel I must ask this side question: is there such a verb or do you not in fact mean _farmoudan_?


Thank you, I spotted the mistake but couldn’t change it as it was used in a quote. There’s no such verb it should be فرمودن


----------



## Qureshpor

PersoLatin said:


> اطلاع فرمائی here is the polite version of اطلاع بدهی (to inform) and فرمائی is specifically used to express politeness, the same as in modern Persian. “that you would inform me of it so I try to change it”


Apologies. It appears I have failed to express my query in a clear and unambiguous way.

I am aware of the use of the verb فرمودن. All I want to know is whether any verb (or almost any verb) when used in the second person singular (like کنی، خوری، بندی، روی، گوئی etc with or without the prefix بِ) in the subjunctive mood carries the force of an imperative as in the OP example with بندی and the later example with فرمائی?


----------



## PersoLatin

^^ No not as far I know & in post 44 I explained how you can hide an order in a subjunctive, so my answer is no not with second person.

And that’s why I gave the meaning, to make it clear that there’s no hint of imperative mood in that sentence and that is the meaning, you must have an alternative meaning in mind.


----------



## mannoushka

I think _vajhe sharti_ was just that, conditional, with Sa’di.
The way to see it better may be to change the Person:
اگر خواهم از نیک‌بختی نشان
در ظلم بندم بر اهل جهان
Or,
اگر خواهد از نیک‌بختی نشان
در ظلم بندد بر اهل جهان
I doubt there is a sense of a command given to oneself or obliquely to an absent party in these test examples. All there is, is commonsense advice.

Confusingly, even if one reads or hears
در ظلم ببند بر اهل جهان
one is still likely to feel there is no real imperative though the mode is clearly just that. The presence of the ‘if’ and the context seem to override the demands of grammar.


----------

