# Sameti



## albl

hi to everybody,
I joint this forum in order to understand the mining of the word "Sameti",  I know the mining in sanscrit and surfing to better understand it i found that probabily there is also a meaning in Hebrew, i hope to find some more about if is it possible.
Thanks in advance,
Alberto


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## xebonyx

I think it means "I'm thirsty".


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## albl

thanks so much for your answer I have found a possible transcription in Hebrew alphabet but i do not how to write or if it is correct by the way i will try and it is:         שמטי  **


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## amikama

xebonyx said:


> I think it means "I'm thirsty".


In Hebrew? No, it doesn't. "I'm thirsty" in Hebrew is אני צמא (_ani tsame_). "I was thirsty" would be צמאתי (_tsamati_) in flowery/ancient Hebrew (in modern Hebrew - הייתי צמא, _hayti tsame_).

I can't think of another Hebrew word similar to "sameti". As far as I know, Hebrew is unrelated to Sanscrit.


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## origumi

Sanskrit "sameti" is Hebrew להצמד (also להתאחד, להתקרב). Similar sound... but I see no reason to assume that there's etymological relation.


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## albl

Thank you all for your help with sameti. A question for you origumi: do you know the meaning of these hebrew words in english that you wrote to me? I am not intrested in etymological relations. All I would like to know is if the word (sound) sameti existe in hebrew and the meaning of it..


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## xebonyx

Interesting. I read it on a website, but I guess you can't always rely on them as reliable sources of information.


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## dinji

amikama said:


> In Hebrew? No, it doesn't. "I'm thirsty" in Hebrew is אני צמא (_ani tsame_). "I was thirsty" would be צמאתי (_tsamati_) in flowery/ancient Hebrew (in modern Hebrew - הייתי צמא, _hayti tsame_).


 
Sorry but I would seek a second opinion on how this could have been said in flowery/ancient Hebrew from other participants on this forum.

1) In Biblical Hebrew the letter "tsade" was pronounced close to the arabic (emphatic) equivalent of today and was indeed transcribed into greek sigma and latin <s>. 
So the <s> of "sameti" would be fine.

2) The tense system of biblical Hebrew was very different from modern Hebrew, in effect the language did not have temporal tenses at all. According to mainstrean theory imperfect ("yif'al") was used for non-certain or non-finished action where as perfect ("pa'al") was used for certain or finished action. In prophecies perfect ("pa'al") was used even for future "tense", because the event was portrayed as certain.

The present tense as we understand it in Indo-European languages was seldom expressed by the "po'el" type, which was reserved for participle use. Instead "yif'al", and occationally "pa'al" could be used for present "tense" of the finite verb.

AFAIK *ra'iti* could therefore under given circumstances be translated as: 
'I (definitely/for sure) see'

3) On this third point I am less sure but I will still pose the question to other participants on this forum: 
wasn't _*same*_ / צָמֵא 'thirsting' (NB not_* tsame*_) in biblical Hebrew conjugated like _*male*_ / מָלֵא'full' on account of the third radical being alef. 'I was/am definitely full' would be _*maleti*_ / מָלֵאתִי rather than *malati */ מָלָאתִי . Also _*sone*_ / שׂוֺנֵא 'hating' would be _*saneti*_ / שָנֵאתִי rather than *sanati */ שָנָאתִי

*So in conclusion would not therefore צָמֵאתִי 'I definitely thirst' be perfectly good flowery/ancient Hebrew along with אנוכי צָמֵא 'I am thirstying'  *


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## origumi

dinji said:


> In Biblical Hebrew the letter "tsade" was pronounced close to the arabic (emphatic) equivalent of today and was indeed transcribed into greek sigma and latin <s>


 
It's not certain how צ was pronounced and when. In the Dead Sea Scrolls it is transcribed (sometimes at least) as Greek psi. For example the name שלומציון becomes Selamyiwn (see the text at http://www.kchanson.com/PTJ/marrcon.html)


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## origumi

dinji said:


> wasn't _*same*_ / צָמֵא 'thirsting' (NB not_* tsame*_) in biblical Hebrew conjugated like _*male*_ / מָלֵא'full' on account of the third radical being alef. 'I was/am definitely full' would be _*maleti*_ / מָלֵאתִי rather than *malati */ מָלָאתִי . Also _*sone*_ / שׂוֺנֵא 'hating' would be _*saneti*_ / שָנֵאתִי rather than *sanati */ שָנָאתִי


 
In the story of Yael and Sisra (Judges 4:19)

וַתֵּצֵא יָעֵל, לִקְרַאת סִיסְרָא, וַתֹּאמֶר אֵלָיו סוּרָה אֲדֹנִי סוּרָה אֵלַי, אַל-תִּירָא; וַיָּסַר אֵלֶיהָ הָאֹהֱלָה, וַתְּכַסֵּהוּ בַּשְּׂמִיכָה. וַיֹּאמֶר אֵלֶיהָ הַשְׁקִינִי-נָא מְעַט-מַיִם, כִּי *צָמֵאתִי*

http://www.mechon-mamre.org/i/t/t0704.htm
http://he.wikisource.org/wiki/%D7%A9%D7%95%D7%A4%D7%98%D7%99%D7%9D_%D7%93


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## berndf

origumi said:


> It's not certain how צ was pronounced and when. In the Dead Sea Scrolls it is transcribed (sometimes at least) as Greek psi. For example the name שלומציון becomes Selamyiwn (see the text at http://www.kchanson.com/PTJ/marrcon.html)


This is not necessarily a contradiction to what Dinji wrote. Anatolian Greek dialects had some form of an emphatic <s> (though not the same as the Semitic emphatic <s>) like the Ionian double-Sigma. In Pamphylian texts this is represented by a slightly modified Psi (the “Square-Psi”). There was a sizable Jewish community in southern Anatolia already at the time (e.g. Paul came from Tarsus) and whoever did this transliteration was probably familiar with Pamphylian Greek. The choice of the letter Psi to transcribe the Semitic emphatic <s> into Standard-Greek is not at all implausible.


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## dinji

origumi said:


> In the story of Yael and Sisra (Judges 4:19)
> 
> וַתֵּצֵא יָעֵל, לִקְרַאת סִיסְרָא, וַתֹּאמֶר אֵלָיו סוּרָה אֲדֹנִי סוּרָה אֵלַי, אַל-תִּירָא; וַיָּסַר אֵלֶיהָ הָאֹהֱלָה, וַתְּכַסֵּהוּ בַּשְּׂמִיכָה. וַיֹּאמֶר אֵלֶיהָ הַשְׁקִינִי-נָא מְעַט-מַיִם, כִּי *צָמֵאתִי*
> 
> http://www.mechon-mamre.org/i/t/t0704.htm
> http://he.wikisource.org/wiki/שופטים_ד


 
For the benefit of those who don't read Hebrew, that is (t)saméti, the trascription of the sibilant of course being dealt with in the other postings.


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