# I am having $200  /  a headache



## aasim84

Hello everyone,

I have a doubt about the usage of the word "having" (I used inverted commas/double quotes to emphasize the word having). Being an Indian, I have realized that I have a lot of Indianism in my language. What I mean by Indianism is that I think in Hindi/Urdu and speak that in English which a lot of times turns out to be grammatically incorrect. We Indians tend to use the gerund form of the verb almost everywhere. For example: "I am having $200" or "I am having a headache".

I am not sure how and when the word having can be used.

As far as I know, usage of having is correct in the following sentence: I am having dinner.

Please help me understand this.

Thank you.


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## ride7359

To be + present participle (-ing form) stressing the present, ongoing nature of an action.  

*I am having dinner *is correct because the ongoing action is stressed.  It is what I am doing right now.

*I am having a headache/$200* is not correct because it is a description of a condition, not an action.

"To have" in English often describes a condition - to have a cold, a cough, doubts, reservations, misgivings, feelings, etc.  There are probably many more that I can't think of at the moment.  

"Having" might also be used when one is undergoing something - He is having a heart attack, she is having a baby. 

There are probably others I can't think of - I am having a brain cramp!


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## Andygc

The terms ride7359 didn't find are dynamic and stative.

I am having a meal / a baby / a heart attack / a brain cramp are all changing over time - they are dynamic.
I have a headache / a cold / a cough / £200 describe a fixed condition - they are stative and cannot be used with _I am having_.

You can, of course, also say _I have a baby_, but that has a completely different meaning from _I am having a baby_.


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## JulianStuart

I used to have frequent migraines, and I can assure you they are not static.  I often had to leave company meetings and gave the explanation "I'm having (I'm in the middle of) a migraine".  However, I accept that this is probably the exception to the rule cited
"I have toothache" "I have stomach ache" etc.


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## Ceremoniar

Many Southerners in the USA use the gerund in this way.


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## Andygc

JulianStuart said:


> I used to have frequent migraines, and I can assure you they are not static.  I often had to leave company meetings and gave the explanation "I'm having (I'm in the middle of) a migraine".  However, I accept that this is probably the exception to the rule cited
> "I have toothache" "I have stomach ache" etc.


I would have no hesitation in agreeing with you - migraine was not one of my examples, and I still have the memory of having them in my teens.


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## dec-sev

What about a situation like this one:
Peter invites  Mike to play football but Mike says that he has a headache. He adds that he has just taken some aspirin and if the ache has gone soon they will go and play. A half an hour later Peter calls Mike agian and asks: "Are you still having the headache?"
Is it correct to use the progressive in this context?


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## Franco-filly

I would stick with "Do you still have a headache?" "Have you still got a headache?'


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## perpend

I agree with Ceremoniar that you will find this usage (with the gerund, similar to the "Indian usage" from the OP) in the USA. I would consider it overall incorrect, but it's not unheard of. We do have to let people speak.

@dec-sev, I'd say: Do you still have a headache?


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## dec-sev

Thanks a lot!


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## natkretep

Franco-filly said:


> I would stick with "Do you still have a headache?" "Have you still got a headache?'



Yes, to the extent that if you say, 'She's having a headache', we might read more into the sentence and maybe imagine that she's feigning a headache. ('She isn't coming down for dinner. She's "having" a headache.')


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## Franco-filly

natkretep said:


> Yes, to the extent that if you say, 'She's having a headache', we might read more into the sentence and maybe imagine that she's feigning a headache. ('She isn't coming down for dinner. She's "having" a headache.')


Great reply..I hadn't thought of that one but it's very apt


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## taraa

natkretep said:


> Yes, to the extent that if you say, 'She's having a headache', we might read more into the sentence and maybe imagine that she's feigning a headache. ('She isn't coming down for dinner. She's "having" a headache.')


Can you please explain how you used "is having a headache"?


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## PaulQ

Julian Stuart has already done this in #4.

To have is a pro-verb - it is used in place of more precise verbs. 
To have = 
to possess, in which the continuous form is not used.
to experience, in which the continuous form is used.
to consume, in which the continuous form is used.
etc.


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## taraa

I read in threads that we can say "I'm having migraine" but not "I'm having a headache". I wanted to know why natkretep said "she's having a headache".


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## velisarius

It isn't a normal way of talking about a plain old headache.

_She has/she's got a dreadful headache.
She is having one of her headaches again. _


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## PaulQ

Idiomatically, a migraine is classed with diseases - I have measles, I have smallpox, etc. have = to suffer from -> having = am suffering from
Headache is considered a state and have is therefore stative and not used in the continuous.

Although it is rarely said of oneself, the meaning of "have" can change and allow grassy's version.


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## taraa

PaulQ said:


> Julian Stuart has already done this in #4.
> 
> To have is a pro-verb - it is used in place of more precise verbs.
> To have =
> to possess, in which the continuous form is not used.
> to experience, in which the continuous form is used.
> to consume, in which the continuous form is used.
> etc.





velisarius said:


> It isn't a normal way of talking about a plain old headache.
> 
> _She has a dreadful headache.
> She is having one of her headaches again. _


Thank you both very much 
In Natkretep, does it mean "she's experiencing"?


PaulQ said:


> Idiomatically, a migraine is classed with diseases - I have measles, I have smallpox, etc. have = to suffer from -> having = am suffering from
> Headache is considered a state and have is therefore stative and not used in the continuous.
> 
> Although it is rarely said of oneself, the meaning of "have" can change and allow grassy's version.


Thanks a lot PaulQ,


> Although it is rarely said of oneself, the meaning of "have" can change and allow grassy's version.


Which version, please?


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## Linkway

"Having" can also be used to indicate current intentions, plans, arrangements for future activities or events:

I'm having a party next week.
She's having surgery next month.
I'm having a plumber come over to inspect the drains.


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## taraa

Linkway said:


> "Having" can also be used to indicate current intentions, plans, arrangements for future activities or events:
> 
> I'm having a party next week.
> She's having surgery next month.
> I'm having a plumber come over to inspect the drains.


Thanks a lot
Can a husband say "I'm having a baby" or just his wife can?


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## PaulQ

taraa said:


> Can a husband say "I'm having a baby" or just his wife can?


What meaning of "to have" are you using? Do you mean "I'm having a baby" = "I am pregnant"? - if so, I think the answer is obvious.


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## taraa

PaulQ said:


> What meaning of "to have" are you using? Do you mean "I'm having a baby" = "I am pregnant"? - if so, I think the answer is obvious.


Yes I meant this meaning. Thanks a lot


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## natkretep

taraa said:


> In Natkretep, does it mean "she's experiencing"?


I think others have commented on this, but since I have been mentioned by name I should confirm that this often means that she is feigning a headache. You'll notice that I use 'is feigning' in the progressive. (See veli's Post 16.) The use of the progressive indicates that it is not a 'normal' headache.


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## taraa

natkretep said:


> I think others have commented on this, but since I have been mentioned by name I should confirm that this often means that she is feigning a headache. You'll notice that I use 'is feigning' in the progressive. (See veli's Post 16.) The use of the progressive indicates that it is not a 'normal' headache.


Sorry, but Velisarius says "It isn't a normal way of talking about a plain old headache.", but if we talk about a plain old headache the use of present progressive shows they are experiencing one of her headaches and it is a normal way (I think I read this in another thread), no?


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## natkretep

Then you wouldn't use the progressive. For a plain old headache, you'd just say 'She has a headache.'


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## taraa

natkretep said:


> Then you wouldn't use the progressive. For a plain old headache, you'd just say 'She has a headache.'


Thanks a lot


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## natkretep

(OK. And maybe I need to say that if you speak Indian English, it might be a normal way of referring to a headache. But not other varieties of English.)


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## taraa

natkretep said:


> (OK. And maybe I need to say that if you speak Indian English, it might be a normal way of referring to a headache. But not other varieties of English.)


I think just Indians speak Indian English.  Thank you again


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## Linkway

taraa said:


> Can a husband say "I'm having a baby" or just his wife can?


It would more usual to say:
My wife/partner is having a baby.
OR:
My wife/partner and I are having a baby.


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## Myridon

taraa said:


> I think just Indians speak Indian English.  Thank you again


... and Pakistanis and Bengalis and people who learned English from them and people who learned English by watching dubbed Bollywood films and ...


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## taraa

Linkway said:


> It would more usual to say:
> My wife/partner is having a baby.
> OR:
> My wife/partner and I are having a baby.


Thanks a lot 
Can't the husband say "I'm having a baby" to mean "I'm going to have a baby"?


Myridon said:


> ... and Pakistanis and Bengalis and people who learned English from them and people who learned English by watching dubbed Bollywood films and ...


I don't think anyone wants to learn English by Indians and watching their movies. (since we know their language isn't English)


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## Myridon

taraa said:


> Thanks a lot
> Can't the husband say "I'm having a baby" to mean "I'm going to have a baby"?
> 
> I don't think anyone wants to learn English by Indians and watching their movies. (since we know their language isn't English)


The husband can say "We're having a baby."  Saying either sentence with "I" would only be used as part of a joke.


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## Myridon

taraa said:


> I don't think anyone wants to learn English by Indians and watching their movies. (since we know their language isn't English)


Hindi and English are the official languages of India.  Many people in India are completely fluent even though they say things like "I am having a brother." and "Do the necessary."


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## taraa

Myridon said:


> The husband can say "We're having a baby."  Saying either sentence with "I" would only be used as part of a joke.


But I think there are situations that it can be said with "I".


Myridon said:


> Hindi and English are the official languages of India.  Many people in India are completely fluent even though they say things like "I am having a brother." and "Do the necessary."


 official language is different from native language


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## JulianStuart

taraa said:


> Thanks a lot
> I don't think anyone wants to learn English by Indians and watching their movies. (since we know their language isn't English)



American English, British Engish and Indian English are all forms of the English language!  Hindi is not.


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## owlman5

taraa said:


> Thanks a lot
> Can't the husband say "I'm having a baby" to mean "I'm going to have a baby"?


Myridon's example, "We're having a baby" is normal these days.  In earlier decades, this wasn't normally used.  The use of "we" is an effort to be inclusive and to recognize a father's role in the birth of his child.  People weren't as concerned about doing this when I was a kid.  "My wife's having a baby" was far more likely.  In this use, "having a baby" is restricted to "giving birth to a baby."  Of course, fathers can't do that.


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## taraa

JulianStuart said:


> American English, British Engish and Indian English are all forms of the English language!  Hindi is not.





owlman5 said:


> Myridon's example, "We're having a baby" is normal these days.  In earlier decades, this wasn't normally used.  The use of "we" has is an effort to be inclusive and to recognize a father's role in the birth of his child.  People weren't as concerned about doing this when I was a kid.  "My wife's having a baby" was more likely.  In this use, "having a baby" is restricted to "giving birth to a baby."  Of course, fathers can't do that.


Thanks a lot


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## owlman5

You're welcome.  I have read similar claims.  I don't believe them.


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## JulianStuart

taraa said:


> Before
> They intended to English be the official language here. If it was, now we would have Iranian English?


Quite possibly, if the British had colonized Persia the way they colonized (what became) India and Pakistan 


taraa said:


> I don't think anyone wants to learn English by Indians and watching their movies. (since we know their language isn't English)


You seemed to be suggesting that Indian English is not Engish - that was why I responded.


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## taraa

JulianStuart said:


> Quite possibly, if the British had colonized Persia the way they colonized (what became) India and Pakistan
> 
> You seemed to be suggesting that Indian English is not Engish - that was why I responded.



Why Indians are studying English


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## Englishmypassion

Indians are speaking English even with their friends and family (even when all the people who are talking are being native speakers of Hindi) because they are thinking it makes them sound posh and intellectual. The Patriot Poem by Nissim Ezekiel - Poem Hunter 


NB: I'm not considering _Indian English_ to be English.


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## JulianStuart

Englishmypassion said:


> NB: I'm not considering _Indian English_ to be English.


Just out of curiosity, do you consider American English to be "English" - or is Indian English so markedly different from either AE or BE to no longer be "English"?


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## Hans in Texas

Linkway in #19 pointed out the *causative* usage of have: to cause someone to do something, whether by demand, contract or request.

I'm having my house painted. = I'm having the Rightway Company paint my house.
The fire department(brigade) had the street blocked. = The firemen had the police block the street.
We'll have the guests arrive around five (o'clock), then we'll eat at seven.


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