# Aramaic: infinitive construct with subject



## S1234

Hi everyone

In Hebrew when an infinitive construct has an attached pronominal suffix or is in the construct state with another noun, then it is not clear whether it (the attached pronoun or following noun) is the infinitive's subject or object. It could be either. In Aramaic, however, it (the attached pronoun or following noun) must always be the object of the infinitive. So, how do you express the infinitive construct's subject in Aramaic?

Thanks


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## Ali Smith

In Aramaic an infinitive, be it construct or absolute, cannot have an expressed subject. Its subject will always be implied. See pg. 26 of Alger F. Johns. The same is true in Syriac (see pg. 92 of Coakley).


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## Ali Smith

It seems I was mistaken. Observe:

וּכְמִקְרְבֵ֣הּ לְגֻבָּ֔א לְדָ֣נִיֵּ֔אל בְּקָ֥ל עֲצִ֖יב זְעִ֑ק עָנֵ֨ה מַלְכָּ֜א וְאָמַ֣ר לְדָנִיֵּ֗אל דָּֽנִיֵּאל֙ עֲבֵד֙ אֱלָהָ֣א חַיָּ֔א אֱלָהָ֗ךְ דִּ֣י אנתה אַ֤נְתְּ פָּֽלַֽח־לֵהּ֙ בִּתְדִירָ֔א הַיְכִ֥ל לְשֵׁיזָבוּתָ֖ךְ מִן־אַרְיָוָתָֽא׃
(דניאל ו כא)

And when he came near to the pit, he called to Daniel with a troubled voice

The pronoun at the end of the infinitive is clearly its subject.


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## 𒍝𒊑𒈾 𒂵𒉿𒀉

I can add that when you have a infinitive from a NON G stem, then if it's the subject after it, then you have the ut ending, but if you have the object after it, you have the at ending.

But if you have a pronoun attached, it doesn't matter if it's subject or object of the infinitive. In either case you will have the ut ending.


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