# O magister concediteme artem conjugandi recte...



## Casquilho

_O magister concediteme artem conjugandi recte...
_
"O teacher concede me the art of conjugating rightly, *that Latin be smooth to me.*"

Is my grammar in the first sentence correct? How to translate the second sentence, in black?


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## Imber Ranae

_Concede mihi, O magister, artem recte coniugandi, ut lingua Latina mihi mollis sit._


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## Casquilho

Thank you very much, but why _concediteme_ is wrong?
I mean, I know it is second person plural, but I think Latin, as Italian, French and Portuguese, admits the use of 2nd plural towards one single person (I'm adressing to just one _magister_, singular) meaning a respectful/formal/classical treatment.

(As in Old English's grammar, you could use _thou_ or _you_ adressing just one person, but _thou_ was familiar and _you_ respectful, so that in "Sir Gawain and the Green Knight", is a significant "insolence" the Knight adressing to King Arthur by _thou_.)


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## CapnPrep

Casquilho said:


> I think Latin, as Italian, French and Portuguese, admits the use of 2nd plural towards one single person (I'm adressing to just one _magister_, singular) meaning a respectful/formal/classical treatment.


No. Classical Latin does not have this usage.

Furthermore, personal pronouns in Latin are independent words. In other words, _me_ is not attached to the verb, as it usually is in modern Romance languages. (And besides, as Imber Ranae suggested, _me_ is not the appropriate form in your sentence.)


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## Casquilho

CapnPrep said:


> No. Classical Latin does not have this usage.



But post-classical Latin does have it? I mean, in the Biblia Vulgata, perhaps? I'll search for some examples.


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## Imber Ranae

Casquilho said:


> But post-classical Latin does have it? I mean, in the Biblia Vulgata, perhaps?



Not that I'm aware of.


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## PacoBajito

I'm really sure that the pronoun in latin is always a single word. Apart from that i would use the imperative form of the verb.


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## Fred_C

Casquilho said:


> But post-classical Latin does have it? I mean, in the Biblia Vulgata, perhaps? I'll search for some examples.



Hi,
No it is not.
Even in modern latin, no one ever uses a plural pronoun to address a single person.


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## Casquilho

Thank you!


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