# Hindi/Urdu: Clarification of 'kare'



## lafz_puchnevala

Hi,

Is 'kare' as in the past tense form really acceptable in formal speaking and writing? I am understanding it as a past tense of 'karna' as in the following sentence.

Eg. " us ne bilahat kare mein qadm rakha " Does it mean 'He walked soundlessly.' ?

Thanks!


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## Qureshpor

lafz_puchnevala said:


> Hi,
> 
> Is 'kare' as in the past tense form really acceptable in formal speaking and writing? I am understanding it as a past tense of 'karna' as in the following sentence.
> 
> Eg. " us ne bilahat kare mein qadm rakha " Does it mean 'He walked soundlessly.' ?
> 
> Thanks!



Would the answer be acceptable if the person answering does not happen to be born into the language?


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## marrish

QURESHPOR said:


> Would the answer be acceptable if the person answering does not happen to be born into the language?


Which language do you mean to refer to ?


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## lafz_puchnevala

Maybe the 'kare' here is not past tense but rather subjunctive future tense as in 'woh shayad kare.' He may/might do.


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## greatbear

lafz_puchnevala said:


> Hi,
> 
> Is 'kare' as in the past tense form really acceptable in formal speaking and writing? I am understanding it as a past tense of 'karna' as in the following sentence.
> 
> Eg. " us ne bilahat kare mein qadm rakha " Does it mean 'He walked soundlessly.' ?
> 
> Thanks!



I am unable to understand your sentence; could you give another example or type it in Devanagari?


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## lafz_puchnevala

Here it is: 'उसने बिलाहत करे में क़दम रखा.' I had enquired about the word 'bilaahat' and the meaning was given as 'come with out any sound' with this sample usage.


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## greatbear

lafz_puchnevala said:


> Here it is: 'उसने बिलाहत करे में क़दम रखा.' I had enquired about the word 'bilaahat' and the meaning was given as 'come with out any sound' with this sample usage.



I don't know the word "bilahat" but I don't think "meiN" could be correct in your sentence, since from your meaning of "bilahat" the equivalent Hindi sentence would be
"usne bina aahaT kare (kamre meiN) kadam rakhaa" (उसने बिना आहट करे कमरे में कदम रखा|).

The "kare" in the Hindi sentence is associated with "aahaT": "aahaT karnaa" - to make a sound. The postive sentence would be
"usne aahaT karte hue kadam rakhaa"; since the sentence is negative, the gerund "karte hue" changes to "kare". So, it's a gerund you're talking about: "without *making *a noise, he entered the room".


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## lafz_puchnevala

Never heard 'kare' used in a past tense before in this manner. When I was taught, it was always discouraged to use 'kara/kare' in the past tense, not sure if we are talking about the same grammatical point though... Couldn't it have been said *'usne bilaahat tarah se kamre meiN qadam rakhaa'*? He stepped into the room in a soundless manner.


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## Qureshpor

greatbear said:


> I don't know the word "bilahat" but I don't think "meiN" could be correct in your sentence, since from your meaning of "bilahat" the equivalent Hindi sentence would be
> "usne bina aahaT kare (kamre meiN) kadam rakhaa" (उसने बिना आहट करे कमरे में कदम रखा|).
> 
> The "kare" in the Hindi sentence is associated with "aahaT": "aahaT karnaa" - to make a sound. The postive sentence would be
> "usne aahaT karte hue kadam rakhaa"; since the sentence is negative, the gerund "karte hue" changes to "kare". So, it's a gerund you're talking about: "without *making *a noise, he entered the room".




As far as I know the normal verbs are "aahaT paanaa/lenaa/lete rahnaa/honaa".  I don't know if "aahaT karnaa" exists. Supposing it does exist, then "kare" is equivalent to the normal literary "kiye". "karaa" we are told is common in Hindi speech for "kiyaa". So, based on this we would get "kare" which is just the inflected past participle and not a gerund.

us ne bilaa aahaT kare kamre meN qadam rakhaa.

He stepped into the room without making a stir. (bilaa is Urdu for without)


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## tonyspeed

lafz_puchnevala said:


> Never heard 'kare' used in a past tense before in this manner. When I was taught, it was always discouraged to use 'kara/kare' in the past tense,



No matter who discourages it, it is still used. I've heard people use it like they didn't even care the other form existed. Why should they?
Is the rule police going to arrest them? In English there are similar "rules" too which most people pay no heed to. They discourage the
learner from using them as a matter of formality.


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## greatbear

QURESHPOR said:


> As far as I know the normal verbs are "aahaT paanaa/lenaa/lete rahnaa/honaa".  I don't know if "aahaT karnaa" exists. Supposing it does exist, then "kare" is equivalent to the normal literary "kiye". "karaa" we are told is common in Hindi speech for "kiyaa". So, based on this we would get "kare" which is just the inflected past participle and not a gerund.
> 
> us ne bilaa aahaT kare kamre meN qadam rakhaa.
> 
> He stepped into the room without making a stir. (bilaa is Urdu for without)



Never heard of "aahaT lenaa" on my side; "aahaT karnaa" is extremely common, by the way. Yes, "kiye" would be the grammatically prescribed inflected form, but some people (including myself) don't see anything wrong using "karaa" as past tense, too.

Meanwhile, "karte hue" would be indeed the proper gerund, not "kare"; I meant to say it translates to the English gerund "without *making*".


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## lafz_puchnevala

On a side note, 'ke bilaa' is fully equivalent to 'ke binaa' and 'ke beghair' in Hindi?

Thanks!


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## lafz_puchnevala

greatbear said:


> Never heard of "aahaT lenaa" on my side; "aahaT karnaa" is extremely common, by the way. Yes, "kiye" would be the grammatically prescribed inflected form, but some people (including myself) don't see anything wrong using "karaa" as past tense, too.
> 
> Meanwhile, "karte hue" would be indeed the proper gerund, not "kare"; I meant to say it translates to the English gerund "without *making*".



Can one replace 'kare' with 'kiye'?  Also, would saying 'us ne aahaT ke binaa kamre meN qadam rakhaa.'  be acceptable here?

Thanks!


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## greatbear

lafz_puchnevala said:


> Can one replace 'kare' with 'kiye'?  Also, would saying 'us ne aahaT ke binaa kamre meN qadam rakhaa.'  be acceptable here?
> 
> Thanks!



You could of course replace "kare" with "kiye" - in fact that's advisable!

You could also say "Usne aahaT binaa kamre meiN kadam rakhaa". (no need of "ke")


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## marrish

_bin aahaT, bin aahaT _kiye too!


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## Qureshpor

greatbear said:


> Meanwhile, "karte hue" would be indeed the proper gerund, not "kare"; I meant to say it translates to the English gerund "without *making*".



*"making" *(karnaa/karne)is indeed a gerund/verbal noun but "karte hu'e" is n't. The latter would be the present participle used adverbially.


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