# EN: write a letter to someone / write someone a letter



## Le bonheur des dames

Hello,

I have some questions about the necessity of using "to" after the verb "to write". I am a little bit confused.

Case 1: Are the sentences below correct?
-I want to write a letter to Sonia
-I want to write Sonia a letter

Case 2: Are the sentences below correct?
-Did you write her ?
-Did you write to her ?

Is it the same rule for the verbs "give, send, propose, tell, inform" ?

Thanks for your help.


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## cyberpedant

Le bonheur des dames said:


> -I want to write a letter to Sonia*.*
> -I want to write Sonia a letter*.*
> 
> -Did you write her ?
> -Did you write to her ?
> 
> Is it the same rule for the verbs "give, send, propose, tell, inform" ? No


Note:
In American English we do not place a space before a question mark.


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## sound shift

As a speaker of British English, I use three of the four sentences. The one I don't use is "Did you write her?"


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## johndot

Both “to write to someone” and “ to write  someone” are correct—they are simply different constructions (in England there seems to be a regional preference).

They both leave the direct object (the letter) implied, but in the first the object would come after the verb, and in the second it would come after the indirect object, like this:

to write (a letter) to someone, *or*
to write someone (a letter).


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## baker589

For me, if using johndot's first example, I would have to follow it with a noun (e.g. to write someone something). Unsurprisingly, I'm with SS on this one.

We don't need a space before a '?' in BE either.


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## timpeac

Actually, using the verb "to write" for case 1 is likely to cause confusion because of case 2.

Dealing with case 2 first - both "to write to someone" and "to write someone" exist - it's just a regional difference (I thought it was a pure British English versus American English difference - but from above apparently some people in the UK may use "to write someone" too, although I've never heard it this side of the Atlantic).

Now dealing with case 1 - The answers to this depend on whether the speaker is someone who would say "to write to someone" or "to write someone". Personally I say "to write to someone" but nevertheless it is still possible for me to say "to write Sonia a letter" (even though this appears to have two direct objects it is acceptable English). "To write a letter to Sonia" is also fine but less common I'd say. This is true for other verbs using "to". I sent Sonia a letter, I gave Sonia a card etc. Again "I sent a letter to Sonia" etc are also possible, but less usual in my experience.

So for case 2 it depends where you're from and for case 1 both are fine, although it may be surprising that that is true for those speakers who would use "to write to Sonia".


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## Dzienne

In both cases, the person you are writing to is an indirect object.  The letter is the direct object.  Right?  Well, sometimes in English we drop the "to".  You will hear it dropped in this case with "I sent (to) him an email, and he wrote (to) me back..."  You can say the to, but it's more natural to drop it.  

For the other question as to whether "to" is optional for these:
give: yes 
send: yes 
propose: no, you need the "to"
tell: with "to" it's correct, but native speakers often drop it
inform: no, drop the "to".  

Hope it helps!


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## timpeac

Dzienne said:


> In both cases, the person you are writing to is an indirect object. The letter is the direct object. Right? Well, sometimes in English we drop the "to". You will hear it dropped in this case with "I sent (to) him an email, and he wrote (to) me back..." You can say the to, but it's more natural to drop it.


Hmmm, I'm not sure about this. Would someone ever say "I sent to him an email"? It sounds very odd to me. I think the choice is between "I sent him an email" "I sent an email to him", with the first being more common. Also, in British English (as far as I've ever heard it) we don't drop the "to" for the "write" example. We wouldn't say "he wrote me back" (which sounds American to me) or "he wrote to me back" (which just sounds strange) but "he wrote back to me". "Wrote", for British speakers, isn't like the other verbs in this respect.


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## baker589

I absolutely agree with timpeac here (although we would probably say _he replied_ instead of _he wrote back to me_, but that's not the point).  The number of differences between AE and BE never cease to amaze me, but I think we have another one here.


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## nongprue

Hello everybody
here is my question if you indeed want to answer it . 
when I have to use "write to me" rather than "write me" ?
I know both are correct but maybe they don't have the same meaning according to the context.
maybe it is possible to use both like "say me" ou "say to me" ( formal /unformal ).
thank you for your helping
regards.


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## Assurancetourix

nongprue said:


> when I have to use "write to me" rather than "write me" ?
> I know both are correct but maybe they don't have the same meaning according to the context.



In UK English you have to use "to" unless you specify the direct object i.e. what is being written ... Shift+R improves the quality of this image. CTRL+F5 reloads the whole page.

 Claudia wrote to me
 Claudia wrote me a letter
 Claudia wrote me

In US English you *can* say Claudia wrote me - I don't know whether Claudia wrote to me is another option but I think it would be unusual in the States.



nongprue said:


> maybe it is possible to use both like "say me" ou "say to me" ( formal /unformal ).



No - actually there is no choice here, if you want the "me" it has to be "say to me". However, where the "me" is important I think we would often use the verb "told":

Marie said the deal had gone through
Marie told me the deal had gone through


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## jann

Assurancetourix said:


> In US English you *can* say Claudia wrote me - I don't know whether Claudia wrote to me is another option but I think it would be unusual in the States.


"To write" is unique in allowing both forms in American English.  In the US we can say both "Claudia wrote to me" and "Claudia wrote me."  They are probably equally common, or else the version with "to" is a little more frequent.  It might depend on where you are in the country.  As a child, I remember thinking that the version without "to" sounded very strange, although I don't notice it now. 

If the direct object is included, you have two (and only two) syntax choices:  
"Claudia wrote me a letter" 
"Claudia wrote a letter to me"  

If the direct object is replaced by a pronoun, there is only one possibility:
"Claudia wrote it to me."


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## MakeEachDayCount

Hello everyone!

I'd like to say "Ecris-lui une lettre".
My tries:
1- Write him a letter.
OR
2- Write a letter to him?

Are both correct? In that case, is it a matter of register?

Thanks a lot.
MEDC


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## Beauceron-puppy

Write him a letter
BUT
Write to him


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## Franglais1969

This depends on the form of language used.

Many Americans I have met have said "Why don't you write me?"
In BE, I have always heard and used "Why don't you write *to* me?"


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## jann

MakeEachDayCount said:


> 1- Write him a letter.
> 2- Write a letter to him?


Yes, both are correct. 
No, it is not a question of _registre_.

It's just grammar: in English, when the indirect object precedes the direct object, we omit the preposition... but when the indirect object pronoun comes after the direct object, we must keep the preposition.  Both orders are generally possible, and neither is more casual than the other.


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## LauraGailSweeneyEdD

I am an American who usually writes "to her" as in case 2; however, I occasionally omit "to". This is common usage nowadays. "To" is sometimes dropped because it is understood (American English).


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