# بَرِئَ



## Ibn Nacer

Salut,

بَرِئَ المَديونُ من دُيونهِ بُرْءًا خالِصًا

How you would translate this sentence (into French and / or into English) ?

Merci.

Source : http://www.ldlp-dictionary.com

(moderator note: I merged the 2 threads as they are both about the same verb. Cherine).


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## Ibn Nacer

Salut,

بَرِئَ المُتَّهَمُ مِنْ كُلِّ التُّهَمِ الْمُوَجَّهَةِ إِلَيْهِ

How you would translate this sentence (into French and / or into English) ?

Merci.

Source : http://www.ldlp-dictionary.com




(ف: ثلا. لازم، م. بحرف). بَرِئْتُ، أَبْرَأُ، اِبْرَأْ، (مص. بُرُوءٌ، بَراءٌ، بَرَاءةٌ). 1. "بَرِئَ المُتَّهَمُ مِنْ كُلِّ التُّهَمِ الْمُوَجَّهَةِ إِلَيْهِ": خَلُصَ مِنْها. □ "بَرِئَ مِنَ الدَّيْنِ". 3. "بَرِئَ مِنْ صاحِبِهِ": تَباعَدَ عَنْهُ، تَخَلَّى عَنْهُ.

​


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## AndyRoo

Hi there,

You could say:
_The accused was cleared of all charges [against him]_.


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## Abu Talha

AndyRoo said:


> You could say:
> _The accused was cleared of all charges [against him]_.


My impression is that he was innocent of all charges, not necessarily that he was cleared (which would be بُرِّئ)


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## Ibn Nacer

Thank you both.

Abu Talha anticipated my next question... 
It seems that the verb بَرِئَ is a state verb while the verb بَرَّأَ is an action verb.
If the sentence was not vocalized, is that you would read بَرِئَ  or بُرِّئَ ?

Thank you.


PS: There is a second sentence in the first post, if someone wants to translate it...

Thank you.


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## AndyRoo

Abu Talha said:


> My impression is that he was innocent of all charges, not necessarily that he was cleared (which would be بُرِّئ)



Whilst بَرِئَ can mean _he was innocent_ it can also mean _he became clear_. Contrast with بُرِّئَ _he was made clear_ [by someone]. In English we would probably translate both of these as _he was cleared_. I think that is the meaning in Ibn Nacer's sentence.



Ibn Nacer said:


> Thank you both.
> 
> Abu Talha anticipated my next question...
> It seems that the verb بَرِئَ is a state verb while the verb بَرَّأَ is an action verb.


بَرِئَ is a state verb (_he was innocent)_, but it can also indicate a change of state, as I mentioned above: _he became clear_.



Ibn Nacer said:


> If the sentence was not vocalized, is that you would read بَرِئَ  or بُرِّئَ ?


I would say بَرِئَ.



Ibn Nacer said:


> PS: There is a second sentence in the first post, if someone wants to translate it...


So your first sentence is بَرِئَ المَديونُ من دُيونهِ بُرْءًا خالِصًا

This means _the debtor was [or became] completely free from debt._


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## Abu Talha

AndyRoo said:


> Whilst بَرِئَ can mean _he was innocent_ it can also mean _he became clear_.


That hadn't occurred to me. Thanks.


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## Ibn Nacer

Thank you both.

I saw the meaning "become clear" in Lane's lexicon (clique here) :


> برأ1
> بَرِئَ, [aor.a, inf. n. generally بُرْءٌ or بَرَآءَةٌ,] He was, or became, clear, or free, of, or from, a thing; in the manners which will be explained below: (Bd ii. 51: ) he was, or became, in a state of freedom or immunity, secure, or safe.


But how to distinguish between "be clear" and "become clear" ?

Merci.


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## Ibn Nacer

Salut,

If someone says : بَرِئَ زيد من الدَّين

What do you understand ? Does that mean that Zaid had no debt?

Or it means that Zaid has paid his debt ?

Merci.


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## Ibn Nacer

Salut,


Ibn Nacer said:


> If someone says : بَرِئَ زيد من الدَّين
> 
> What do you understand ? Does that mean that Zaid had no debt?
> 
> Or it means that Zaid has paid his debt ?


Nobody has any idea ?

----
Meanwhile I have another question:

- معجم الغني :
بَرِئَ [ب ر أ]. (ف: ثلا. لازم، م. بحرف). بَرِئْتُ، أََبْرَأُ، اِبْرَأُْ، مص. بُرُوءٌ، بَراءٌ، بَرَاءةٌ بَرِئَ المُتَّهَمُ مِنْ كُلِّ التُّهَمِ الْمُوَجَّهَةِ إِلَيْهِ: خَلُصَ مِنْها. "بَرِئَ مِنَ الدَّيْنِ" بَرِئَ مِنْ صاحِبِهِ: تَباعَدَ عَنْهُ، تَخَلَّى عَنْهُ

- المعجم الوسيط : 
برِئ : الْمَرِيض برءا وبروءا شفي وتخلص مِمَّا بِهِ وَمن فلَان بَرَاءَة تبَاعد وتخلى عَنهُ وَمن الدّين وَالْعَيْب والتهمة خلص وخلا فَهُوَ بارئ (ج) برَاء

​
What is the meaning of تَخَلَّى عَنْهُ ? Are these meanings "_abandon, give up, relinquish_... "?

And تَباعَدَ عَنْهُ, does it have the same meaning ? Or there is subtle difference? Is it can mean "_separate, keep away_..." ?

Merci.


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## Abu Talha

My impression:
تخلى and تباعد are similar but there is a difference. Before the action of the verb the subject and the object were associated in some way.
تخلى عنه means the subject made himself alone such that he was no longer associated with the object.
تباعد عنه means he moved himself steadily farther apart from the object.


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## cherine

Ibn Nacer said:


> Salut,
> 
> If someone says : بَرِئَ زيد من الدَّين
> 
> What do you understand ? Does that mean that Zaid had no debt?
> 
> Or it means that Zaid has paid his debt ?
> 
> Merci.


Bonjour Ibn Nacer,

If faut être patient, si quelqu'un a la réponse il vous la donnera. 

La phrase برئ من الدين veut dire qu'il n'est plus endetté (he's no longer in debt).


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## Ibn Nacer

Salut,

@ Abu Talha : Thank you. In practice how you would translate these verbs ?

@ Cherine : Merci. Oui il faut être patient c'est vrai...

- Le sens "il n'est plus endetté" (he's no longer in debt) suppose que la personne était endettée... Alors si elle ne l'est plus c'est qu'elle a dû payer sa dette ou bien que le prêteur l'a libérée (il l'a dispensée de payer).


@ At all :

How to say that a person has no debt, it is free of debt ...? (and not "he's no longer in debt")
Should you use a noun like بارِئ or وبريء ?

زيد بارِئ/وبريء من الدَّين

- Comment dire qu'une personne n'a pas de dette, qu'elle est exempte de dette... ? (et non qu'elle n'a *plus* de dette).
Faut-il utiliser un nom comme بارِئ ou وبريء ?  

زيد بارِئ/وبريء من الدَّين

Merci.


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## Abu Talha

Ibn Nacer said:


> @ Abu Talha : Thank you. In practice how you would translate these verbs ?


 It would depend on the situation and context but in general تباعد عن could be translated as "he distanced himself from". تخلى عن is harder to idiomatically capture the connotation of the original. I suggest "he had nothing to do with".


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## cherine

Ibn Nacer said:


> - Le sens "il n'est plus endetté" (he's no longer in debt) suppose que la personne était endettée... Alors si elle ne l'est plus c'est qu'elle a dû payer sa dette ou bien que le prêteur l'a libérée (il l'a dispensée de payer).


Oui, c'est ça. Le comment n'est pas claire, mais le verbe indique qu'il était endetté avant et maintenant il ne l'est plus.


> How to say that a person has no debt, it is free of debt ...? (and not "he's no longer in debt")
> Should you use a noun like بارِئ or وبريء ?
> زيد بارِئ/وبريء من الدَّين


Yes, you can say بريء من الدين even though there are other words or expressions, like زيد ليس مَدِينًا لأحد or ليس عليه دَيْن.


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## Ibn Nacer

Thank you both.

Translations such as "_abandon, give up, relinquish_... " or "_separate, keep away_..." are apparently quite modern ...


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## Interprete

I think the confusion is the same for all class-I verbs describing a state. All of them can mean 'to be so and so' or 'to become so and so', it's typical in Arabic as far as I know...


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## Bakr

Ibn Nacer said:


> If someone says : بَرِئَ زيد من الدَّين


ربما كان مديونا وسدد دينه أو كان متهما بدين وهو برئ منه..!ـ


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## Ibn Nacer

Merci Bakr.

@ Interprete : Oui mais comment faire la différence entre les deux ?

Je pense aussi qu'en français ces verbes peuvent correspondre à une forme pronominale genre : "être vide", "devenir vide" ou "se vider"...


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## Interprete

On ne peut pas, hormis à l'aide du contexte... C'est une ambiguïté de la langue arabe, tout comme il en existe en français en comparaison avec d'autres langues... tu parlais récemment du verbe "prêter" il me semble.


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## analeeh

You have to work it out from context. But IME it's relatively rare (and usually quite obvious from context) for verbs to actually be used in the sense 'be X' (since there is usually a variety of adjectives and other non-verbal forms that can be used) rather than 'become X'. Also, I am reasonably sure that the stative sense can't be used in the past tense - if you say برئ for example I think it has to mean 'came to be innocent', 'was demonstrated to be innocent' or whatever. I mean, it has to express a change of state.


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## Interprete

What about, for example, the verb عميَ ? i've seen it several times used to mean 'he was blind', not 'he became blind', judging from the context at least.


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## cherine

Then it would be a mistaken usage. As far as I know, عَمِيَ can only mean "became blind" and not "he is blind" which should be هو أعمى, i.e. we don't use the verb but the adjective. The same for bari2a بَرِئَ it can only indicate becoming not being. For being, we use the adjective barii2 بَرِيء. Note that some people write the hamza above the yaa2 confusing barii2 with bari2a.


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## Ibn Nacer

Thank you to all.

- What is the meaning of "IME", please ?

- What do you think of this example : الدلائل تشير إلى خيانة زوجي، وهو يحلف أنه برئ، فماذا أفعل؟

The meaning seems to be "to be innocent or free from خيانة" and not "to become innocent or free from خيانة"...

Is it a mistake ? Is the mistake mentioned by Cherine (--->this is not برئ but بَرِيء ?) ?


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## analeeh

There are two readings. One is that it is a (common) misspelling of بريء, the other is that it is a past verb meaning 'has become free of' or 'has become innocent of'. Either way this is not a past tense reading.

IME is 'in my experience'.


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## cherine

Ibn Nacer said:


> - What do you think of this example : الدلائل تشير إلى خيانة زوجي، وهو يحلف أنه برئ، فماذا أفعل؟
> 
> The meaning seems to be "to be innocent or free from خيانة" and not "to become innocent or free from خيانة"...
> 
> Is it a mistake ? Is the mistake mentioned by Cherine (--->this is not برئ but بَرِيء ?) ?


Yes, I believe this is a typo, it should be بريء: he swears he's innocent (from the accusation of betraying her).


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## Ibn Nacer

Ok merci à vous deux.


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## koukeye

Ibn Nacer said:


> I saw the meaning "become clear" in Lane's lexicon (clique here) :
> But how to distinguish between "be clear" and "become clear" ?


be clear = برئ
become clear = بُرّئ  with shadda


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## Ibn Nacer

Thank you. Yes you are right but it seems that the verb بَرِئَ can also mean "become clear". But in practice I do not know if we would use the verbe بَرِئَ for the meaning "become clear". Maybe in this case it is better to use the verb بَرَّأَ  in the passive voice (---> بُرِّئَ).

For example If the sentence (بَرِئَ المُتَّهَمُ مِنْ كُلِّ التُّهَمِ الْمُوَجَّهَةِ إِلَيْهِ) was not vocalized, is that you would read بَرِئَ or بُرِّئَ ?


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## koukeye

Exactly. You are right. Grammatically speaking I would read it برئ because there is no shadda, and this is what matters more than the vocalization. The pattern determines the meaning. But logically speaking, there would be someone who accused him at first before becoming clear so it is برئ with shadda

[Edit:] sorry i mean برئ with shadda


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## cherine

Ibn Nacer said:


> For example If the sentence (بَرِئَ المُتَّهَمُ مِنْ كُلِّ التُّهَمِ الْمُوَجَّهَةِ إِلَيْهِ) was not vocalized, is that you would read بَرِئَ or بُرِّئَ ?


I would read it burri2a = he was declared innocent.


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## Ibn Nacer

Merci.

Oui cela me semble plus logique et la traduction de Cherine me semble bien convenir, c'est comme si cette phrase était par exemple la forme passive de cette phrase : بَرَّأَ القاضي المُتَّهَمَ مِنْ كُلِّ التُّهَمِ الْمُوَجَّهَةِ إِلَيْهِ...


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## cherine

Oui, exactement.


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