# quod and ut



## UkrainianPolyglot

et auditum est quod in domo esset

And it was heard that he was in the house.

Shouldn't ut be present here rather than quod? I thought quod used as conjunction translates as which or because.


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## exgerman

It can also mean just mean _that, _particularly in Late Latin like this verse (Mark 2.2) from the Vulgate. "It became known that he was in the house".

It would be helpful if you mentioned your source in the future.;


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## bearded

Everything in that verse is Late Latin : quod + subjunctive instead of infinitive construction, in domo instead of locative 'domi'... Classical Latin would be:  ''et auditum est (or rather: audivimus) eum domi esse''.


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## fdb

bearded man said:


> Everything in that verse is Late Latin : quod + subjunctive instead of infinitive construction, in domo instead of locative 'domi'... Classical Latin would be:  ''et auditum est (or rather: audivimus) eum domi esse''.



I agree that audire quod for “to hear that” is not classical Latin. “In domo” is however impeccable. 

References from L/S: “in domo furtum factum ab eo, qui domi fuit,” Quint. 5, 10, 16: “rem quam e villa mea surripuit, in domo mea ponat,” Sen. Const. Sap. 7 med.: “in domo sua facere mysteria,” Nep. Alcib. 3 fin.: “quid illuc clamoris obsecro in nostra domo est?” Plaut. Cas. 3, 4, 29; id. Ps. 1, 1, 82; Sen. Cons. ad Marc. 26: “educatus in domo Pericli,” Nep. Alcib. 2; so, “in domo ejus,” id. Lys. 3, 5; Tac. A. 4, 21.


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## bearded

You are right, fdb, as concerns 'in domo'.  The locative 'domi' is more often used to say ''in (one's) country'' or generally 'at home'.  'In domo' is more specific for ''inside the house'' or ''at the house''.


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## fdb

Just to add this very small point: The context in Mk 2:1-2 makes it clear that ἠκούσθη ὅτι ἐν οἴκῳ ἐστίν means “it was heard that he (=Jesus) was in the house”, not “at home”.


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## bearded

So ''en oiko(i)' would precisely correspond to ''in domo''.  I agree (although in Greek there is/was no real locative case).


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## fdb

Yes, the Vulgate is here absolutely literal. ἠκούσθη ὅτι "it was heard that" is correct in Greek, but "auditum quod" is not correct in Latin.

By the way, Greek does in fact have a fossilised locative οἴκοι "at home".


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## bearded

I did not know (or had forgotten) about a fossilised locative 'oikoi' in Greek.  Can you please indicate up to what epoch it was used (by Homer maybe...?)- My classical Greek studies are a bit rusty.  Thank you.

One question asked by the OP is still unanswered: 'ut' instead of 'quod'.  I think that in the sentence in question 'ut' would represent an even bigger mistake than 'quod', since usually ut means ''in order that/for the purpose to..''  or  ''so that''..


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## fdb

Here is entry in the Liddell-Scott-Jones dictionary:

οἴκοι, Adv. (old loc. of οἶκος) at home, in the house, οὔ νυ καὶ ὑμῖν οἴ. ἔνεστι γόος . . ; Il.24.240; οἴ. βέλτερον εἶναι Hes.Op.365, etc.; τὰ οἴ. one's domestic affairs, X.Cyr.6.1.42; home products, Pl.R.371a; ἡ οἴ. δίαιτα S.OC352; ἡ δ’ οἴ. (sc. πόλις) one's own country, ib.759; αἱ οἴ. τιμαί Isoc.Ep.4.7. 2. 


So, it is in pre-classical (Homer, Hesiod) and classical (Xenophon, Plato, Sophocles, Isocrates) authors, but not apparently in the Bible or other koine writings.


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## bearded

Thank you, fdb.


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