# Future I vs. Future II



## TheTruthWSYF

What exactly is the difference between Future I and Future II?

Ie. for the verb _essare_
I Future: ego essā́bō
II Future: ego essā́verō

How does this differ from future perfect (_I will have been_), simple future (_I will be_​) or conditional (_I would be_)?


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## Scholiast

Greetings!



> Ie. for the verb _essare_
> I Future: ego essā́bō
> II Future: ego essā́verō



I imagine the questioner would not have come to this site were he not looking for some constructive pedantry. So I begin by marking his work.
1 _essare_ n'existe pas. The infinitive is _esse_.
2 _essebo_ likewise (_ero_, _eris_ &c.)
3 the fut perf. is (regularly) formed from the perf. stem _fu-_, on the pattern of _-o_, _-is__, __-it_ &c.

Now to the nitty-gritty - there's probably a shorter answer to this, and CapnPrep, who knows everything, will if he looks at this thread advise further. 

A perfective tense implies _completion_ (that's what "perfect-", "done through") means in Latin.

Hence a "Future Perfect" characterizes a transaction imagined or hypothesized as complete in the future: "Your mum will have finished making supper by the time you (will) finish your homework: that is, your supper will be ready (having-been-prepared) at the precise hour you sit down to eat.

Normally, in rendering into English, a simple (rather than perfective) tense will do: "When you arrive at the station, we'll come and pick you up" - for the first, strict Latin will require a fut. perf.

It occurs to me to wonder whether the OP's perplexity arises because he, as a Canadian, will have learned French. Trust the French to get this tangled: the French conditional functions grammatically as a tense, but semantically as a mood.

I must leave the podium for wiser persons than I.


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## TheTruthWSYF

Scholiast said:


> Greetings!
> 
> I imagine the questioner would not have come to this site were he not looking for some constructive pedantry. So I begin by marking his work.
> 1 _essare_ n'existe pas. The infinitive is _esse_.



_Merci beaucoup_, it seems I got such data from an interesting Latin imaginary verb-builder (if said website doesn't recognize a verb it'll conjugate it by relying on standard protocol) - this website is verbix.com. 



Scholiast said:


> 2 _essebo_ likewise (_ero_, _eris_ &c.)
> 3 the fut perf. is (regularly) formed from the perf. stem _fu-_, on the pattern of _-o_, _-is__, __-it_ &c.



What I meant to ask was not the difference between essebo and essavero, but the difference between ero and fuero. _Pardonnez-moi_.



Scholiast said:


> Now to the nitty-gritty - there's probably a shorter answer to this, and CapnPrep, who knows everything, will if he looks at this thread advise further.
> 
> A perfective tense implies _completion_ (that's what "perfect-", "done through") means in Latin.
> 
> Hence a "Future Perfect" characterizes a transaction imagined or hypothesized as complete in the future: "Your mum will have finished making supper by the time you (will) finish your homework: that is, your supper will be ready (having-been-prepared) at the precise hour you sit down to eat.
> 
> Normally, in rendering into English, a simple (rather than perfective) tense will do: "When you arrive at the station, we'll come and pick you up" - for the first, strict Latin will require a fut. perf.



Thank you for your (rather long) explanation of future perfective - _malheureusement_, that is one of the few things I _did _know.

Of course I probably just confused you (as I did myself) with my stupid machine translation error. *What I really mean to ask is what is the difference between ero and fuero*. 



Scholiast said:


> It occurs to me to wonder whether the OP's perplexity arises because he, as a Canadian, will have learned French. Trust the French to get this tangled: the French conditional functions grammatically as a tense, but semantically as a mood.
> 
> I must leave the podium for wiser persons than I.



Perhaps, except I do not speak French (neither do roughly eight tenths of the country). I do speak Spanish and Portuguese, _não obstante_. And English too!

Thanks again and God bless you.


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## Cagey

I am sorry, but I have difficulty understanding your question.

_fuero_ is the future perfect (_I will have been_) of the irregular verb _sum, esse_ (to be). 
_ero _is the simple future (_I will be_​).

If you know what the future perfect is, what in particular is giving you trouble?


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## Fred_C

Hi,
«ero» means «I will be» («Je serai» in French, «seré» en español, «serei» em português)
«fuero» means «I will have been» («J’aurai été», «habré sido» «terei sido»)

There is no connection to the conditional mood/tense in neither French, nor Spanish nor Portuguese.


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## TheTruthWSYF

Awesome, thank you!

The page I had looked at didn't label it as "future perfect" but rather, confusingly, "II Future".


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## Scholiast

Greetings once more.

It may be relevant that German textbooks for Latin learning regularly refer to "Futur I" and "Futur II" for what we call "Future [Simple]" and "Future Perfect" respectively, so this terminology may also therefore be used in other base-languages, or have found its way into English manuals based on them.


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