# Adam kazağını giyiyor



## Arabus

Hello,

_Adam kazak giyiyor

Adam kazağını giyiyor

_Why does the second sentence have an object marker_ -ı_? Is it because the word _kazağı _is definite?

Thanks,


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## er targyn

-i means his.


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## Arabus

I mean the second -i. There are two of them.


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## macrotis

_1. Adam kazak giyiyor_: He wears a sweater.
_2. Adam kazağ*ı* giyiyor_: He wear *the* sweater (eg., that I bought yesterday).
_3. Adam kazağ*ı*nı giyiyor_: He wears his sweater (~he wears *the* sweater of his own).


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## Arabus

Thanks.....


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## er targyn

Again homonymy... Accusative looks like 3.possessive.


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## Black4blue

Yeah Macrotis is right. If the noun has possessive suffix, then it is also definite. So it takes both of those suffixes.


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## Rallino

macrotis said:


> _..._
> _3. Adam kazağ*ı*nı giyiyor_: He wears his sweater (~he wears *the* sweater of his own).



A small correction:

The first _*ı*_ means: his.
The *nı* part is accusative.

Benim kazağım --> Benim kazağım-ı gördüler.
Senin kazağın ---> Senin kazağın-ı gördüler.
Onun kazağ*ı* ----> Onun kazağ*ı*-_nı_ gördüler.


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## macrotis

Thank you, Rallino.


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